تويت
أكرهك يا المايكرووو
بليييييييييز انا لقيت عندي ذي الأسئله مدري من فين جايبتها :sm200:
من زمان عندي بس توني افتحها ابي لها اجابات الله يسعدكم اذا تعرفون :sm199:
بسم الله وطولو بالكم
من زمان عندي بس توني افتحها ابي لها اجابات الله يسعدكم اذا تعرفون :sm199:
بسم الله وطولو بالكم
1- Solidifying agent for media is,
A) agar.
B) wax.
C) starch.
D) non of above.
2- Color of gram stain is.
A)brown
B) red.
C) green.
D) black.
3- Those are use In gram stain except.
A) crystal violet.
B) malachite green.
D) safranine.
E) non of above
4- Temperature for autoclave is.
A) 121c for 30 min.
B) 121C for 60min.
C) 131C for 20 min.
D) non of above.
5- Microscope use in condition gram stain is.
A) Bright field microscope.
B) electronic microscope.
C) dark field microscope.
D) non of the above.
6- Thayer martin medium is the media of choice for isolation of .
A) E.coli.
B) neisseria.
C) bacillus.
D) vibrio.
7- Bacteria that has no flagella classified as ?
A) atrichon.
B) monotrichons.
C) keprotrichons.
D) peritrichons.
8- CLED agar use in urine culture because it?
A) it is transport media.
B) it is basic media.
C) Help in colonies count and prevent swarming of proteus.
D) all above.
9-Agar solidified at?
A) 100C.
B) 45c.
C) 60C.
D) 75C
10- Anticoagulant that use in blood culture is?
A) fluoride.
B) EDTA.
C) citrate.
D) Sodium polyanthol sulphat.
11- Which test help in identifying staph from strepto it is.
A) catalyase.
B) coagulase.
C) oxidase.
D) all above
12- Use to protect biohazard is?
A) tube.
B) Gloves.
C) syringe.
D) non of above.
13- Ziel nelson stain use in?
A) bacillus.
B) mycobacterium.
C) H.influnza.
D) non of above.
14- Bacteria that can grow in present or absent of O2 is called?
A) facultative anaerobic.
B) strict anaerobic.
C) anaerobic.
D) non of above.
15- Optimum temperature for growth of bacteria is?
A) 50C.
B) 60C.
C) 37C.
D) non of above.
16- Salmonella in the coming medium it gives?
A) on maccokey pink colonies.
B) XLD red black colonies.
C) SS pink colonies black center.
D) all are true
17- Satellite phenomenon seen in ?
A) influenza and staph. aureus.
B) influenza and strepto.
C) influenza and vibrio.
D) non of the above.
18- All are true about salmonella except.
A) somatic.
B) oxidase positive.
C) H2S produce.
D) produce acid and gas
19- Quellung test is positive with the coming except.
A) strepto pneumonia.
B) H. influenza.
C) klebsiella.
D) corynebacteria diphtheria.
20- In significance bacteria cfu/ml is.
A) > 100.
B) >1000.
C) >10000.
D) 100000.
21- Agar use to solidify the medium in concentration of.
A) 1- 2 %.
B) 3%.
C) 2 – 4%.
D) non of above.
22-Which of the following is lactose ferment.
A) klebsiella.
B) proteus.
C) shigella.
D) pseudomonas
23- Culture media kept in the following after plating.
A) hot oven.
B) incubator.
C) non of above.
D) all above
24- Media for detection of hemolysis is.
A) blood agar.
B) neutral agar.
C) macconky.
D) all above
25- All are use in Zeilh Nelson stain except.
A) Carbon Fuchcin.
B) Acid alcohol.
C) Methyl blue.
D) Malachite green.
26- Color of gram negative bacteria is.
A) red.
B) blue.
C) violet.
D) green.
27- Most common bacteria that produces urease is.
A) proteus.
B) pseudomonas.
C) E.coli.
D) non of above.
28- Albert's stain use with which of the organism.
A) E.coli.
B) H. influenza.
C) C.tetani.
D) Corynebacterium diphtheria.
29- Proteus mirabilis and proteus vulgaris all are true except:
A) produce H2S.
B) Non lactose ferment.
C) urease positive.
D) indole positive.
30- Gram stain smear see under:
A) Dark field microscope.
B) Bright field microscope.
C) Fluorescence microscope.
D) Electron microscope.
31- Smear stain with fluorescence exam with:
A) Bright field microscope.
B) Fluorescence microscope.
C) Dark field microscope.
D) Electron microscope.
32- An example for negative stain is:
A) gram stain.
B) Alberts stain.
C) methyl blue.
D) nigrocine stain.
33- All of the following are non lactose ferment except:
A) E.coli.
B) shigella.
C) proteus.
D) salmonella.
34- To differentiate between staph aureus and other staph spp:
A) catalyase test.
B) Oxidase test.
C) Coagulase test
D) Dnase test.
35- One of the following is an example for enrichment media:
A) Blood agar.
B) CLED.
C) Nutrient agar.
D) Selenite broth.
36- One of the following is an example for enrich media:
A) Blood agar.
B) N.A.
C) Selenite broth.
D) Macconky.
37- One of the following is an example for enrichment media:
A) Blood agar.
B) N.A.
C) Selenite broth.
D) Macconky.
38-All of the following affect gram stain except.
A) smear from old media.
B) prolong decolonization.
C) staing smear stay for long time.
D) All of above.
39- The following are use in gram stain except.
A) iodine.
B) crystal violet.
C) safranine.
D) malachite green.
40- All of the following belong to enterobacteracae except.
A) E.coli.
B) Alcaligenes.
C) proteus.
D) campylobacter.
41-All are true about salmonella except.
A) gram negative bacilli.
B) non lactose ferments.
C) produce H2S.
D) man is reservoir and carrier host.
E) oxidase positive.
42- The primary stain of gram stain is.
A) crystal violet.
B) safranine.
C) iodine.
D) eosin
43-Mycobacterium named acid fast because?
A) stain easily.
B) once stained not decolorize by acid.
C) because of it is shape.
D) non of above.
44- Infections may be caused by microorganisms entering th body through the
A- Skin & mouth
B- Eyes
C- Respiratory tract
D- All of them
45- Decontaminate culture s by autoclaving at
A- 121 C for 20 min
B- boiling water for 20 min
C- 100 C for 30 min
D- non of these
46- Organisms can be picked up on the hands from the
A- Benches and equipment
B- Contaminated splashes
C- Contaminated spills
D- All of them
47- Pipettes soaked after use for at least 1h in
A- 2500 ppm chlorine
B- 1000 ppm chlorine
C- 1 % w/v virkon
D- boiling water for 20 min
48- Infected small airborne droplets into the atmosphere cause infection through
A- Skin
B- Mouth
C- Respiratory tract
D-Eyes
49- if the sterile tubes are needed autoclave it at
A- 121 C for 20 min
B- boiling water for 20 min
C- 100 C for 30 min
D- non of these
50- The organisms in the risk group 3 present a …………. to the community
A- No risk
B- Low risk
C- Intermediate risk
D- High risk
51- Loops & forceps are sterilized by
A- Flaming until red hot
B- boiling water for 20 min
C- soaked in 1 % w/v virkon
D- non of these
52- Preventing laboratory infections depends on laboratory staff understanding
A- The routes by which infections are acquired
B- Which organisms are the most hazardous
C- Which techniques are the most hazardous
D- All of them
53- Causes of presence of pus in feaces
A- amoebic dysentery
B- intestinal schistosomiasis
C- trichuris trichura
D- all of them
53- Most bacteria can be differentiated by their Gram stain due to difference in
A- Cell wall
B- Cell membrane
C- Capsule
D- All of them
54- Culture media contain ingredients such as
A- peptone
B- carbohydrate
C- Meat extract
D-All of them
55- Acquiring infection by mouth pipetting can occur when
A- Aerosols are produced from fluid as it is being sucked up or expelled
B- A pipette with a contaminated end is put in the mouth
C- Pipette with a chipped end causes cuts to the fingers or lips
D- All of them
56- Enriched media are required for the culture of
A- hemophilus influenza
B- Neisseria
C- streptococcus
D- All of them
57- Macroscopic appearance of faecal specimens
A- Odour
B- Specific gravity
C- Whether the specimen contain worms
D-All of them
58- Differential media contain indicators or dyes such as
A- Bromothymol blue
B- Methyl red
C- crystal violet
D- all of them
59- Pale colored faecal specimen is found in the following cases except
A- Giardiasis
B- Infections associated with intestinal malabsorption
C- Obstructive jaundice
D- E. Histolytica
60- In gram stain the first stain is
A- Crystal violet
B- Iodine
C- Safranine
D- Alcohol
61- The first urine passed by the patient at the beginning of the day should
be sent for examination because the specimen is the
A- Most suitable
B- Most concentration
C- Lowest concentration
D- Available one
62 – Giemsa stain technique used in stain
A- Bacteria
B- Virus
C- Parasites
D- All of them
63- In case of urine specimen if a delay in delivery of more than 1 hour anticipated ………………….. should be added to the urine
A- Sulfuric acid
B- Boric acid
C- Acetic acid
D- Nitric acid
64- bacteria contain only one flagella called ……..
A- mono-trichous
B- peri- trichous
C- loph- trichous
D- ( a , b )
65- Gastric washings should be …………… as soon as possible After collection
A- Acidified
B- Alkalinized
C- Neutralized
D- None of these
66- bacteriology is the science which study the
A- bacteria & their characters
B- virus& their characters
C- fungi & their characters
D- no result
67- If the specimen is for the isolation of M. tuberculosis , ensure that it is Delivered to the laboratory
A- Within 2 hours
B- Kept at 4 ‘C until delivery is possible
C- A & B is true
D- A and B is false.
68- in the ………..bacteria are divided at high concentration
A- Lag phase
B- Log phase
C- stationary phase
D- Decline phase
69- For 8 hours before swabbing , the patient must not be treated with
A- Antibiotics
B- Antiseptic mouth washes
C- A or B
D- None of these
70- in the ………..the rate of cell death increase & bacterial growth stopped
A- Lag phase
B- Log phase
C- stationary phase
D- Decline phase.
71- These are media to which indicators or dyes are added to differentiate microorganisms as XLD agar
A- Basic
B- Enriched
C- Selective
D- Differential
72- Bacteria which can not retain with Gram stain's called
A- Gram negative bacteria
B- Gram positive bacteria
C- Acid fast bacteria
D- no result.
73- Decontaminate sputum by autoclaving at
A- 121 C for 15 min
B- boiling water for 20 min
C- 100 C for 30 min
D- non of these
74- Organisms can penetrate the skin through
A- Cuts & scratches
B- Airborne droplets
C- Contaminated fingers
D- Cigarettes
75- Basic media are simple media such as
A- Nutrient agar
B- Blood agar
C- XLD agar
D- TCBS agar
76- Direct finger to mouth infection as in
A- Eating food in the laboratory
B- Contact with infected material
C- Cigarettes or pipes
D-All of them
77- Stainless steel lancets sterilized in autoclave at
A- 121 C for 15 min
B- boiling water for 20 min
C- 100 C for 30 min
D- non of these
78- The organisms in the risk group 2 present a
A-No risk
B- Low risk
C- Moderate risk
D- High risk
79- Decontaminate bench surface are sterilized by
A- 1h in 2500 ppm chlorine
B- 50 % phenol
C- both A,B is true
D- 1h in 1000 ppm chlorine
80- The organisms offer a moderate risk can cause
A- Human & animal disease
B- Serious human disease but not a serious hazard
C- Serious human disease are transmitted from one individual to another
D- No disease
81- Causes of blood & mucus in feaces due to
A- amoebic dysentery
B- intestinal schistosomiasis
C- trichuris trichura
D- all of them
82- Special precautions need to be taken when
A- Collecting the specimens
B-Testing the specimens
C- Handling the infected material
D-All of them.
83- Causes of pale colored specimen in feaces
A- Giardia lamblia
B- obstructive jaundice
C- both A,B is true
D- non of these
84- Aerosols can be formed through the following ways except
A- Using a suitable loop which is properly closed
B- Opening a centrifuge immediately
C- Dropping or spilling a specimen or culture
D- Mouth pipetting
85- Decontaminate culture s by autoclaving at
A- 121 C for 20 min
B- boiling water for 20 min
C- 100 C for 30 min
D- non of these
86- Faecal concentration techniques is required in
A- Schistosoma species , few egg is produced in sever infections
B- Detection of the eggs of Taenia , cysts of Giardia
C- To check whether treatment has been successful
D-All of them
87- Selective media such as ………used for select salmonellae & shigellae
A- XLD
B- TCBS
C- Blood agar
D- non of these
88- Blood and mucus may be found in feaces from patients with
A- Amoebic dysentery
B- Intestinal schistosomiasis
C- Severe T. trichiura
D- All of them
89- Mycobacteria can be stained with
A- Gram stain
B- Ziehl- Neelsen stain
C- Giemsa stain
D non of these .
90- A 24 hour urine is required for the quantitative analysis of substances such
A- Hormones and phosphate
B- Steroids and calcium
C- Protein
D- All of them.
91- In acid fast stain the first is
A- Carbol fuchsin
B- Methelen blue
C- Malachite green
D- non of these
92- If immediate delivery of the urine specimen to the laboratory is not possible
A- Refrigerated at 10 C
B- Cooled
C- Refrigerated at 40 C
D- None of these
93- In gram stain the last is
A- Crystal violet
B- Iodine
C- Safranine
D- Alcohol
94- Sputum is best collected in the
A- Morning
B- Soon after the patient wakes
C- Before any mouth- wash is used
D- All of them
95- bacteria contain tow flagella called ……..
A- mono-trichous
B- peri- trichous
C- loph- trichous
D- no result
96- Organisms such as S. pneumonia and H. influenza require culturing
A- As soon as possible
B- After one hour
C- After 6 hours
D- After
97- in the ……bacteria adapted on fresh medium & have no multiplication
A- Lag phase
B- Log phase
C- stationary phase
D- Decline phase
98- With streptococcal sore throat, the tonsils may inflamed & covered in
A- Yellow spots
B- Black & smelly
C- Grayish - yellow
D- Grayish – green
99- in the ………..no. of divided cells tended to be equal to no of dead cells
A- Lag phase
B- Log phase
C- stationary phase
D- Decline phase
100- Preservation of foods can accomplished by adding
A- Lowering the pH
B- Lowering the water activity
C-Chemicals & cold storage
D- All of them
A) agar.
B) wax.
C) starch.
D) non of above.
2- Color of gram stain is.
A)brown
B) red.
C) green.
D) black.
3- Those are use In gram stain except.
A) crystal violet.
B) malachite green.
D) safranine.
E) non of above
4- Temperature for autoclave is.
A) 121c for 30 min.
B) 121C for 60min.
C) 131C for 20 min.
D) non of above.
5- Microscope use in condition gram stain is.
A) Bright field microscope.
B) electronic microscope.
C) dark field microscope.
D) non of the above.
6- Thayer martin medium is the media of choice for isolation of .
A) E.coli.
B) neisseria.
C) bacillus.
D) vibrio.
7- Bacteria that has no flagella classified as ?
A) atrichon.
B) monotrichons.
C) keprotrichons.
D) peritrichons.
8- CLED agar use in urine culture because it?
A) it is transport media.
B) it is basic media.
C) Help in colonies count and prevent swarming of proteus.
D) all above.
9-Agar solidified at?
A) 100C.
B) 45c.
C) 60C.
D) 75C
10- Anticoagulant that use in blood culture is?
A) fluoride.
B) EDTA.
C) citrate.
D) Sodium polyanthol sulphat.
11- Which test help in identifying staph from strepto it is.
A) catalyase.
B) coagulase.
C) oxidase.
D) all above
12- Use to protect biohazard is?
A) tube.
B) Gloves.
C) syringe.
D) non of above.
13- Ziel nelson stain use in?
A) bacillus.
B) mycobacterium.
C) H.influnza.
D) non of above.
14- Bacteria that can grow in present or absent of O2 is called?
A) facultative anaerobic.
B) strict anaerobic.
C) anaerobic.
D) non of above.
15- Optimum temperature for growth of bacteria is?
A) 50C.
B) 60C.
C) 37C.
D) non of above.
16- Salmonella in the coming medium it gives?
A) on maccokey pink colonies.
B) XLD red black colonies.
C) SS pink colonies black center.
D) all are true
17- Satellite phenomenon seen in ?
A) influenza and staph. aureus.
B) influenza and strepto.
C) influenza and vibrio.
D) non of the above.
18- All are true about salmonella except.
A) somatic.
B) oxidase positive.
C) H2S produce.
D) produce acid and gas
19- Quellung test is positive with the coming except.
A) strepto pneumonia.
B) H. influenza.
C) klebsiella.
D) corynebacteria diphtheria.
20- In significance bacteria cfu/ml is.
A) > 100.
B) >1000.
C) >10000.
D) 100000.
21- Agar use to solidify the medium in concentration of.
A) 1- 2 %.
B) 3%.
C) 2 – 4%.
D) non of above.
22-Which of the following is lactose ferment.
A) klebsiella.
B) proteus.
C) shigella.
D) pseudomonas
23- Culture media kept in the following after plating.
A) hot oven.
B) incubator.
C) non of above.
D) all above
24- Media for detection of hemolysis is.
A) blood agar.
B) neutral agar.
C) macconky.
D) all above
25- All are use in Zeilh Nelson stain except.
A) Carbon Fuchcin.
B) Acid alcohol.
C) Methyl blue.
D) Malachite green.
26- Color of gram negative bacteria is.
A) red.
B) blue.
C) violet.
D) green.
27- Most common bacteria that produces urease is.
A) proteus.
B) pseudomonas.
C) E.coli.
D) non of above.
28- Albert's stain use with which of the organism.
A) E.coli.
B) H. influenza.
C) C.tetani.
D) Corynebacterium diphtheria.
29- Proteus mirabilis and proteus vulgaris all are true except:
A) produce H2S.
B) Non lactose ferment.
C) urease positive.
D) indole positive.
30- Gram stain smear see under:
A) Dark field microscope.
B) Bright field microscope.
C) Fluorescence microscope.
D) Electron microscope.
31- Smear stain with fluorescence exam with:
A) Bright field microscope.
B) Fluorescence microscope.
C) Dark field microscope.
D) Electron microscope.
32- An example for negative stain is:
A) gram stain.
B) Alberts stain.
C) methyl blue.
D) nigrocine stain.
33- All of the following are non lactose ferment except:
A) E.coli.
B) shigella.
C) proteus.
D) salmonella.
34- To differentiate between staph aureus and other staph spp:
A) catalyase test.
B) Oxidase test.
C) Coagulase test
D) Dnase test.
35- One of the following is an example for enrichment media:
A) Blood agar.
B) CLED.
C) Nutrient agar.
D) Selenite broth.
36- One of the following is an example for enrich media:
A) Blood agar.
B) N.A.
C) Selenite broth.
D) Macconky.
37- One of the following is an example for enrichment media:
A) Blood agar.
B) N.A.
C) Selenite broth.
D) Macconky.
38-All of the following affect gram stain except.
A) smear from old media.
B) prolong decolonization.
C) staing smear stay for long time.
D) All of above.
39- The following are use in gram stain except.
A) iodine.
B) crystal violet.
C) safranine.
D) malachite green.
40- All of the following belong to enterobacteracae except.
A) E.coli.
B) Alcaligenes.
C) proteus.
D) campylobacter.
41-All are true about salmonella except.
A) gram negative bacilli.
B) non lactose ferments.
C) produce H2S.
D) man is reservoir and carrier host.
E) oxidase positive.
42- The primary stain of gram stain is.
A) crystal violet.
B) safranine.
C) iodine.
D) eosin
43-Mycobacterium named acid fast because?
A) stain easily.
B) once stained not decolorize by acid.
C) because of it is shape.
D) non of above.
44- Infections may be caused by microorganisms entering th body through the
A- Skin & mouth
B- Eyes
C- Respiratory tract
D- All of them
45- Decontaminate culture s by autoclaving at
A- 121 C for 20 min
B- boiling water for 20 min
C- 100 C for 30 min
D- non of these
46- Organisms can be picked up on the hands from the
A- Benches and equipment
B- Contaminated splashes
C- Contaminated spills
D- All of them
47- Pipettes soaked after use for at least 1h in
A- 2500 ppm chlorine
B- 1000 ppm chlorine
C- 1 % w/v virkon
D- boiling water for 20 min
48- Infected small airborne droplets into the atmosphere cause infection through
A- Skin
B- Mouth
C- Respiratory tract
D-Eyes
49- if the sterile tubes are needed autoclave it at
A- 121 C for 20 min
B- boiling water for 20 min
C- 100 C for 30 min
D- non of these
50- The organisms in the risk group 3 present a …………. to the community
A- No risk
B- Low risk
C- Intermediate risk
D- High risk
51- Loops & forceps are sterilized by
A- Flaming until red hot
B- boiling water for 20 min
C- soaked in 1 % w/v virkon
D- non of these
52- Preventing laboratory infections depends on laboratory staff understanding
A- The routes by which infections are acquired
B- Which organisms are the most hazardous
C- Which techniques are the most hazardous
D- All of them
53- Causes of presence of pus in feaces
A- amoebic dysentery
B- intestinal schistosomiasis
C- trichuris trichura
D- all of them
53- Most bacteria can be differentiated by their Gram stain due to difference in
A- Cell wall
B- Cell membrane
C- Capsule
D- All of them
54- Culture media contain ingredients such as
A- peptone
B- carbohydrate
C- Meat extract
D-All of them
55- Acquiring infection by mouth pipetting can occur when
A- Aerosols are produced from fluid as it is being sucked up or expelled
B- A pipette with a contaminated end is put in the mouth
C- Pipette with a chipped end causes cuts to the fingers or lips
D- All of them
56- Enriched media are required for the culture of
A- hemophilus influenza
B- Neisseria
C- streptococcus
D- All of them
57- Macroscopic appearance of faecal specimens
A- Odour
B- Specific gravity
C- Whether the specimen contain worms
D-All of them
58- Differential media contain indicators or dyes such as
A- Bromothymol blue
B- Methyl red
C- crystal violet
D- all of them
59- Pale colored faecal specimen is found in the following cases except
A- Giardiasis
B- Infections associated with intestinal malabsorption
C- Obstructive jaundice
D- E. Histolytica
60- In gram stain the first stain is
A- Crystal violet
B- Iodine
C- Safranine
D- Alcohol
61- The first urine passed by the patient at the beginning of the day should
be sent for examination because the specimen is the
A- Most suitable
B- Most concentration
C- Lowest concentration
D- Available one
62 – Giemsa stain technique used in stain
A- Bacteria
B- Virus
C- Parasites
D- All of them
63- In case of urine specimen if a delay in delivery of more than 1 hour anticipated ………………….. should be added to the urine
A- Sulfuric acid
B- Boric acid
C- Acetic acid
D- Nitric acid
64- bacteria contain only one flagella called ……..
A- mono-trichous
B- peri- trichous
C- loph- trichous
D- ( a , b )
65- Gastric washings should be …………… as soon as possible After collection
A- Acidified
B- Alkalinized
C- Neutralized
D- None of these
66- bacteriology is the science which study the
A- bacteria & their characters
B- virus& their characters
C- fungi & their characters
D- no result
67- If the specimen is for the isolation of M. tuberculosis , ensure that it is Delivered to the laboratory
A- Within 2 hours
B- Kept at 4 ‘C until delivery is possible
C- A & B is true
D- A and B is false.
68- in the ………..bacteria are divided at high concentration
A- Lag phase
B- Log phase
C- stationary phase
D- Decline phase
69- For 8 hours before swabbing , the patient must not be treated with
A- Antibiotics
B- Antiseptic mouth washes
C- A or B
D- None of these
70- in the ………..the rate of cell death increase & bacterial growth stopped
A- Lag phase
B- Log phase
C- stationary phase
D- Decline phase.
71- These are media to which indicators or dyes are added to differentiate microorganisms as XLD agar
A- Basic
B- Enriched
C- Selective
D- Differential
72- Bacteria which can not retain with Gram stain's called
A- Gram negative bacteria
B- Gram positive bacteria
C- Acid fast bacteria
D- no result.
73- Decontaminate sputum by autoclaving at
A- 121 C for 15 min
B- boiling water for 20 min
C- 100 C for 30 min
D- non of these
74- Organisms can penetrate the skin through
A- Cuts & scratches
B- Airborne droplets
C- Contaminated fingers
D- Cigarettes
75- Basic media are simple media such as
A- Nutrient agar
B- Blood agar
C- XLD agar
D- TCBS agar
76- Direct finger to mouth infection as in
A- Eating food in the laboratory
B- Contact with infected material
C- Cigarettes or pipes
D-All of them
77- Stainless steel lancets sterilized in autoclave at
A- 121 C for 15 min
B- boiling water for 20 min
C- 100 C for 30 min
D- non of these
78- The organisms in the risk group 2 present a
A-No risk
B- Low risk
C- Moderate risk
D- High risk
79- Decontaminate bench surface are sterilized by
A- 1h in 2500 ppm chlorine
B- 50 % phenol
C- both A,B is true
D- 1h in 1000 ppm chlorine
80- The organisms offer a moderate risk can cause
A- Human & animal disease
B- Serious human disease but not a serious hazard
C- Serious human disease are transmitted from one individual to another
D- No disease
81- Causes of blood & mucus in feaces due to
A- amoebic dysentery
B- intestinal schistosomiasis
C- trichuris trichura
D- all of them
82- Special precautions need to be taken when
A- Collecting the specimens
B-Testing the specimens
C- Handling the infected material
D-All of them.
83- Causes of pale colored specimen in feaces
A- Giardia lamblia
B- obstructive jaundice
C- both A,B is true
D- non of these
84- Aerosols can be formed through the following ways except
A- Using a suitable loop which is properly closed
B- Opening a centrifuge immediately
C- Dropping or spilling a specimen or culture
D- Mouth pipetting
85- Decontaminate culture s by autoclaving at
A- 121 C for 20 min
B- boiling water for 20 min
C- 100 C for 30 min
D- non of these
86- Faecal concentration techniques is required in
A- Schistosoma species , few egg is produced in sever infections
B- Detection of the eggs of Taenia , cysts of Giardia
C- To check whether treatment has been successful
D-All of them
87- Selective media such as ………used for select salmonellae & shigellae
A- XLD
B- TCBS
C- Blood agar
D- non of these
88- Blood and mucus may be found in feaces from patients with
A- Amoebic dysentery
B- Intestinal schistosomiasis
C- Severe T. trichiura
D- All of them
89- Mycobacteria can be stained with
A- Gram stain
B- Ziehl- Neelsen stain
C- Giemsa stain
D non of these .
90- A 24 hour urine is required for the quantitative analysis of substances such
A- Hormones and phosphate
B- Steroids and calcium
C- Protein
D- All of them.
91- In acid fast stain the first is
A- Carbol fuchsin
B- Methelen blue
C- Malachite green
D- non of these
92- If immediate delivery of the urine specimen to the laboratory is not possible
A- Refrigerated at 10 C
B- Cooled
C- Refrigerated at 40 C
D- None of these
93- In gram stain the last is
A- Crystal violet
B- Iodine
C- Safranine
D- Alcohol
94- Sputum is best collected in the
A- Morning
B- Soon after the patient wakes
C- Before any mouth- wash is used
D- All of them
95- bacteria contain tow flagella called ……..
A- mono-trichous
B- peri- trichous
C- loph- trichous
D- no result
96- Organisms such as S. pneumonia and H. influenza require culturing
A- As soon as possible
B- After one hour
C- After 6 hours
D- After
97- in the ……bacteria adapted on fresh medium & have no multiplication
A- Lag phase
B- Log phase
C- stationary phase
D- Decline phase
98- With streptococcal sore throat, the tonsils may inflamed & covered in
A- Yellow spots
B- Black & smelly
C- Grayish - yellow
D- Grayish – green
99- in the ………..no. of divided cells tended to be equal to no of dead cells
A- Lag phase
B- Log phase
C- stationary phase
D- Decline phase
100- Preservation of foods can accomplished by adding
A- Lowering the pH
B- Lowering the water activity
C-Chemicals & cold storage
D- All of them
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