شكرآ جزيلآ JEDO

... و آلله يجزآك كل خييير ~

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اسئلة مايكرو جدييدة ولو في واحد امتحن ياريت ينزل لينا امتحانو ومشكوريييين

191- Acid Fast Bacteria
a- Salmonella
b- Shigella
c- M. Tuberculosis
d- E – Coli
192- Spherical or avoid cells occurring in chains
a- Staphylococci
b- Streptococci
c- Lactobacillus
d- Spiro chaeta

193- ……………… carries the genetic information
a- the envelope
b- the capsid
c- the nucleic acid
d- the prion

194- …………………… may be seen under light microscope
a- rota virus
b- influenza virus
c- herps virus
d- pox virus

195- viruses may be:
a- monomorphic
b- pleomorphic
c- dimorphic
d- all of the above

196- viral capside is formed of:
a- protein
b- glycogen
c- lipoprotein bilayer
d- glycoprotein

197- class III in Baltimor classification is:
a- double stranded DNA viruses
b- single stranded DNA viruses
c- double stranded RNA viruses
d- single stranded RNA viruses

198- Hierarchial virus classification system use the following characters except:
a- nature of nucleic acid
b- capside symmetry
c- diameter of viron & capside
d- virus molecular weight
199- in viral replication which is true:
a- penetration is the 1st step
b- assembly is the last step
c- relaease is the last step
d- all of the above

200- viron:
a- may be extracellular phase of virus
b- may be intracellular phase of virus
c- can grow and replicate
d- means “ virus – like “

201- pleomorphic viruses means :
a- virus which have constant shape
b- virus that may appear in 2 forms
c- virus that have not a constant morphology
d- virus that have spherical shape

202- vapor of gold is used in :
a- shadow casting technique
b- negative staining technique
c- positive staining technique
d- non of the above

203- direct diagnosis of virus :
a- ELISA Antibody
b- CFT
c- IFT
d- PCR virus

204- all of the following are required in cell culture except:
a- neutral PH
b- presence of buffer salts
c- presence of antibiotics
d- incubation at 20 C (( 30-37 C))

205- all of the following are diagnostic molecular biological technique except:
a- PCR
b- ELISA
c- nucleic acid hyperdization
d- DNA finger printing
206- PCR require all of the following except:
a- extracted DNA template
b- 2 specific primers
c- reation buffer
d- RNA polymerase

207- bacteriophage is :
a- virus that can be killed by antibiotic
b- virus that act like a bacteria
c- bacteria that act like a virus
d- virus that infect bacteria

208- all of the following viruses are transmitted by blood except:
a- HIV
b- HBV
c- HCV
d- herps virus

209-all of the following are RNA viruses except:
a- corona viridase
b- reoviridase
c- picorona viridase
d- pox viridase

210- penetration of naked virus is by :
a- fusion
b- endocytosis
c- translocation
d- all of the above

211- amniotic cavity inoculation is one type of virus culture in:
a- tissue wall
b- lab animals
c- embryonated egg
d- non of the above

212- …………….. is an invitro method amplification of a short sequence of target DNA
a- PCR
b- hyberdization
c- finger printing
d- all of the above

213- nucleic acid hyberdization means:
a- probe anneling or binding with it’s complementary
segment of NA
b- fragmentation of nucleic acid
c- amplification of nucleic acid
d- non of the above

214- DNA hyberdization is performed by:
a- primers
b- DNA labeled probe
c- restriction endonuclease
d- non of the above

215-PCR starts with :
a- annealing
b- denaturation of DNA
c-extension of primers
d- non of the above

216- ……………….. is a piece of DNA fragment of a particular gene that can bind specially with it’s complementary piece of DNA:
a- codon
b- probe
c- LCR
d- code

217- how many primers are used in PCR :
a- non
b- one
c- two
d- three

304-Lowenstein-Jensen media is used for the isolation for:
a- neisseria gonorrhea
b- mycobacterium tuberculosis
c- haemophilus influenza
d- staphylococcus aureus



305- Hekton-Enteric agar is the selective media for:
a- salmonella
b- streptococcus
c- staphylococcus
d- all of the above

306- the selective media for isolation of fungi is:
a- S-S agar
b- XLD agar
c- sabouraud glucose agar
d- Hekton-Enteric agar

307- gram positive rods with Chinese letter appearance:
a- mycobacterium tuberculosis
b- corynebacteria diphtheria
c- clostridium tetani
d- staphylococcus pneumonia

308- E lek test is done to diagnose :
a- streptococcus
b- staphylococcus aureus
c- clostridium tetani
d- corynebacteria diphtheria

309- all are lactose fermenter except:
a- E-COLI
b- proteus
c- klebsiella
d- enterobacter

310- produce pale colonies on MacConkey’s agar and have tendency to swarm on blood agar:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus





311- lactose frementer gram negative bacilli with mucoid growth:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus

312-non lactose fermenter gram negative bacilli produce H2S :
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus

313- Widal test is done for diagnosis of :
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- E-coli
d- klebsiella

314- the causative agent of enteric fever:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus

315- the most common cause of urinary tract infection :
a- E-coli
b- salmonella
c- shigella
d- streptococcus

316- an important cause of diarrhea in infant:
a- staphylococcus
b- E-coli
c- salmonella
d- shigella

317- the most common causative agent for peptic ulcer :
a- campylobacter
b- H-pylori
c- V-cholera
d- all of the above
318- TCBS is the selective media for isolation of:
a- H-pylori
b- V-cholera
c- E-coli
d- H influenza

319- gram negative bacilli strict aerobes grows on simple media producing a characteristic greenish pigment:
a- campylobacter
b- pseudomonas
c- pasterulla
d- bordetella

320- the bacteria which cause scarlet fever:
a- staphylococcus
b- streptococcus
c- salmonella
d- shigella

321- antistreptolysin O titer (ASO) is done for the diagnosis of:
a- group A streptococcus
b- group B streptococcus
c- staphylococcus aureus
d- staphylococcus albus

323- Loffler’s serum is used for isolation of:
a- anthrax
b- clostridium
c- diphtheria
d- T.B

324- gas gangrene is caused by:
a- clostridium tetani
b- clostridium botulinum
c- clostridium welchii
d- non of the above (( clostridium perfinges ))

325- Bacillary dysentery is caused by:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- cholera
d- all of the above

326- the cause of plague:
a- Y-enterocolitica
b- Y-pestis
c- Y pseudotuberculsois
d- non of the above

327- treponema palladium is the cause of :
a- T.B
b- gonorrhea
c- syphilis
d- AIDS

328- the venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL) is done for diagnosis of:
a- T.B
b- gonorrhea
c- syphilis
d- AIDS

329- Trachoma is caused by:
a- mycoplasma
b- chlamydiae
c-richettsia
d- mycobacteria

391- M-tuberculsis bacilli stain with :
a- gram stain
b- Zheil Nelson stain
c- Gimesa stain
d- all of the above

392- AIDS is transmitted through :
a- food
b- blood
c- semen
d- (b) & (c)
393- bacteria which cause syphilis:
a- Neisseria gonorrhea
b- Viencent angina
c- Treponema palladium
d- Yersinia pestis

394- to diagnose syphilis:
a- RPR
b- VDRL
c- Wasserman
d- all of the above

395- streptococci secret:
a- streptolysin O
b- streptolysin S
c- streptokinase
d- all of the above

396- disease caused by streptococci:
a- scarlet fever
b- purperal sepsis
c- rheumatic fever
d- all of the above

397- staphylococci secrets:
a- coagulase enzyme
b- fibrinolysin
c- hyaluronidase
d- all of the above

398- gram positive bacilli:
a- Klebsilla
b- Salmonella
c- Proteus
d- C-diphtheria

399- meningeococcal meningitis is transmitted by :
a- food
b- droplet
c- touch
d- all of the above

400- dark field microscopy is used to diagnose :
a- T.B.
b- syphilis
c- gonorrhea
d- AIDS

401- it cause food poisining with flacid paralysis:
a- clostridium tetani
b- clostridium welchii
c- clostridium botulinium
d- all of the above

402- the infective stage of plasmodium vivax :
a-merozoites
b- sporozoites
c- schizont
d- trophozoite

403- Pirenella conica snail is the intermediate host of:
a- schistosoma haematobium
b- fasciola hiptica
c- heterphyes heterophyes
d- diphyllobothrium latum

404- Bulinus truncates snail is the intermediate host of :
a- fasciola hepatica
b- fasciola gigantica
c- schistosoma haematobium
d- schistosoma mansonii

405- to isolate meningiococci we have to culture the sample on:
a- Bordet Gengou
b- modified Thayer martin media
c- Lowenstein Jensen media
d- all of the above

406- to isolate fungi :
a- Brain-Heart infusion media
b- tissue culture
c- Lowenstein –Jensen media
d- chocolate agar

407- to isolate H- influenza:
a- blood agar
b- chocolate agar
c- mac Conkey media
d- all of the above

408- the bacteria which cause pseudomembrainous conjunctivitis :
a- N.gonorrhea
b- C. diphtheria
c- staphylococcus
d- Chlamydia

409- the best sample to diagnose meningitis :
a- blood
b- sputum
c- CSF
d- urine

410- used to stain Chlamydia
a- gram stain
b- giemsa stain
c- wright stain
d- all of the above
411-……….. is used as transport medium for sample in which cholera is suspected
a- Cary-Blair media
b- Stuart media
c- Alkaline peptone water
d- glycerol

412- the color of XLD medium:
a- green
b- red
c- yellow
d- blue

413- CIN medium is used to isolate:
a- E.coli
b- Vibrio cholera
c- yersinia
d- salmonella

414- to make wet mount preparation:
a- 10 % KOH
b- 10 % Na OH
c- 10 % Na CO3
d- 10% Na Cl

415- we do wet mount preparation for vaginal smear To diagnose:
a- T.vaginalis
b- N.gonorrhea
c- streptococci
d- staphylococci

416- to isolate viruses:
a- Loeffler media
b- tissue culture
c- Bordet –Gengou media
d- Brain- Heart infusion

417- to diagnose whooping cough :
a- Bordet –Gengou media
b- Lowenstein –Jensen media
c- modified Thayer martin media
d- New York city agar

418- to diagnose systemic infection we do :
a- urine culture
b- CSF culture
c- blood culture
d- sputum culture

419- we give no growth for blood culture after:
a- 1 week
b- 8 weeks
c- 6 weeks
d- 3 weeks





420- to dissolve mucous in sputum sample :
a- 10% NaOH
b- 30 % NaOH
c- 10 % KOH
d- 10% NaCl

421- mutualism means:
a- one partener benefits , other unaffected
b- both partner benefit
c- one partner benefit , other damaged
d- living together

422- Commensalisms means:
a- living together
b- one partner benefit , other damaged
c- both partner benefit
d- one partner benefits , other unaffected

423- Balantidium coli moves by:
a- flagella
b- cilia
d- pseudopod
d- all of the above

424- Mouth inhabitant:
a- Trichomonas hominis
b- Trichomonas tenax
c- Trichomonas vaginalis
d- giardia lamblia

425- Transmitted by sexual intercourse:
a- toxoplasma
b- giardia lamblia
c- Trichomonas vaginalis
d- all of the above

465- citrate utilization test is done to assist identification of:
a- gram +ve bacteria
b- gram –ve bacteria
c- entrobacteria
d- enterococcus

466- the Kovac's reagent used in the following biochemical tests:
a- catalase
b- coagulase
c- indole
d- methyl red

467- positive results for H2S production appear as …. Colour:
a- black
c- yellow
c- red
d- green

468-………. Give positive coagulase test:
a- streptococci
b- staphylococcus aureus
c- staphylococcus saprophyticus
d- Escherichia coli

469- methyl red test is performed with:
a- Erlich reagent
b- Kovac's reagent
c- Voges proskaur
d- non of the above

470- ………… give positive result with urease test:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- Y. enterocolitica
d- all of the above

471-…………. test is used to differentiate between bacteroides & brucella:
a- indole
b- methyl red
c- H2S production
d- nitrate reduction

472- DNAase test is positive with:
a- streptococcus pneumonia
b- E.coli
c- staphylococcus aureus
d- staphylococcus epidermis

473- ………… solution used in the gram stain technique acts as a mordant:
a- crystal violet
b- safranine
c- iodine
d- alcohol

474- the counter stain in Ziehl- Neelson stain is :
a- malachite green
b- methylene blue
c- iodine
d- (a) & (b)

475- bile solubility test is positive with :
a- streptococcus viridans
b- streptococcus pneumonia
c- streptococcus agalectiae
d- streptococcus pyrogenes
During replication of DNA, copying errors may occur and this is called
a- Conjugation
b- Transduction
c- Transformation
d- Mutation

132- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
a- grow only in presence of oxygen
b- grow only in absence of oxygen
c- grow either in presence or absence of oxygen
d- grow in presence of oxygen traces and 5 – 10% CO2

133- Neutrophilic bacteria grow well at
a- pH 8.5 – 9.0
b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
c- pH 5.0 – 5.5
d- pH 2.5 – 3.0

134- The rate of cell death increase and bacterial growth stopped, this is
a- Adaptation phase
b- Exponential phase .
c- Stationary phase.
d- Decline Phase

135- Beta-hemolytic
a- Cause complete hemolysis of RBC’s
b- Cause chemical change of Hemoglobin in RBC’s
c- Do not cause hemolysis
d- None of them





146- Mesophilic bacteria grow at:
a- 37°C
b- 14°C
c- 60°C
d- 120°C

137- Circulation of Bacteria and its toxins in blood
a- Pyaemia
b- Toxemia
c.- Bacteremia - without toxins
d- Septicemia

138- Disinfections that applied on living or injured tissues:
a- Sterilization
b- Antiseptic
c- Sanitation
d- Decontamination

139- Hot air oven is used for sterilization of
a- Glass
b- Rubber Gloves
c.- Plastic Syringes
d- Catheters

140- Disinfectant for superficial fungal infection
a- Phenol
b- Potassium permanganate
c- Chlorine
d- Hypochlorite compounds

141- Rifampin
a- inhibit cell wall synthesis
b- inhibit protein synthesis
c- inhibit folic acid pathway
d- inhibit mRNA synthesis

142- Transacetylase inactivate
a- aminoglycosides
b- chloramphenicol
c- penicillin
d- cephalosporins

143- The color of gram positive bacteria is
a- Yellow
b- Black.
c- Pink
d- Violet

144- Selective media for fungi
a- blood agar
b- Mac Conkey agar
c- Nutrient agar
d- Sabourand’s dextrose agar

145- Histoplasma is a :
a- Systemic mycosis
b- Sub – Cutaneous mycosis
c- Cutaneous mycosis
d- Superficial mycosis

146- All are asexual spores produced by mould except
a- Conidio – spores
b- Sporangio – spores
c- Endospores
d- Arthro – spores

147- They reproduce only by Asexual reproduction
a- Blastomycosis
b- Deutromycosis
c- Ascomycetes
d- Zygomycetes

148- The functions of cell wall is all of the following except:
a- Giving the shape to the bacteria
b- Carrying somatic antigen
c-Selective permeability& transport of solutes = plasma membrane
d- Protect the bacteria from plasmolysis

149- Atrichous Bacteria are:
a- Bacteria contain one flagellum
b- Bacteria contain 2 flagella
c- Bacteria without flagella
d- Bacteria with a tuft of flagella

150-__________ are essential for host cell attachment:
a- Flagella
b- Fimbria
c- Spores
d- Capsules

151- Irregular clusters of spherical cells:
a- Streptococcus
b- Staphylococcus
c- Lactobacillus
d- Escherichia

152- Clostridium Botulinum is:
a- Obligatory Aerobic Bacteria
b- Facultative Anaerobic Bacteria
c- Obligatory Anaerobic Bacteria
d- Micro- aerophilic Bacteria

153- Basophilic Bacteria grow well at:
a- pH 8.5 – 9.0
b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
c- pH 5.0 – 5.5
d- None of the above

154- Cells are divided at high & constant rate:
a- Decline Phase
b- Stationary Phase
c- Log Exponential Phase
d- Adaptation Phase

155- The dominant bacterial species in dental plaque are:
a- Coagulase Negative Staphylococci
b- Lactobacillus
c- Bacteroides
d- Streptococcus Sanguis

156- The spread of Pyogenic Bacteria in blood stream to different organs & produce multiple abscess is:
a- Septicemia
b- Bacteremia
c-Toxemia
d- Pyaemia
157- Inhibit the growth of micro organisms
a- Bacteriostatic
b- Bactericidal
c- Fungicidal
d- Germicidal

158- To sterilize fluid damaged by heat:
a- Gaseous Sterilization
b- Heat Sterilization
c- Filtration
d- Ionizing Radiation

159- For water disinfection we use:
a- Hydrogen peroxide
b- Formaldehyde
c- Chlorine
d- Hypochlorite compounds

160- Mechanism of action of penicillin:
a- Block peptidoglycan synthesis
b- Inhibit peptidyglycan cross – linking
c- inhibit folic acid pathway
d- inhibit protein synthesis

161- Sulfonamides:
a- inhibit cell wall synthesis
b- inhibit protein synthesis
c- inhibit DNA synthesis
d- inhibit folic acid pathway

162- Acetylase inactivates:
a- B – Lactam antibiotics
b- Aminoglycosides
c- Cloramphenicol
d- All of the above

163- Ringworm disease is caused by
a- Zygomycetes
b- Ascomycetes
c- Blastomycosis
d- None of the above

164- For wet – mount technique we add:
a- NaoH
b- K oH
c- H2 O2
d- All of the above

165- They are transmitted by arthropods
a- Chlamydia
b- Spirochetes
c- Mycoplasma
d- All of the above

166- In the past they were listed as large viruses
a- Richettsia
b- Mycoplasma
c- Chlamydia
d- None of the above

167- Bacteria multiply by:
a- Replication cycle
b- Simple binary fission
c- Sexual reproduction
d- All of the above

168- It protects bacteria from antibiotics
a- Capsule
b- Cell membrane
c- Flagella
d- Fimbria

169- Vibro cholera is:
a- Mono –trichous bacteria
b- Atrichous bacteria
c- Lopho-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria

170- Short rods, motile by peritrichous flagella
a- Spirochaeta
b- Lactobacillus
c- Escherichia coli
d- Vibrio
171- To take up soluble DNA fragments derived from other, closely related species is:
a. Mutation
b. Transformation
c. Transduction
d. Conjugation

172- Tuberculosis are
a- micro-airophilic
b- Facultative anaerobic
c- Obligatory anaerobic
d- Obligatory aerobic

173- According to pH, Lactobacillus is
a- Neutrophlic bacteria
b- Acidophilic bacteria
c- Basophilic bacteria
d- None of the above

174- Bacteria without cell Wall
a- Chlamydia
b- Rickettsia
c- Mycoplasma
d.- Spirochetes

175- Brucella Melitensis is
a- Obligatory aerobic bacteria
b- Obligatory anaerobic bacteria
c- Facultative anaerobic bacteria
d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria

176- Pseudomonas aeroginosa is
a- Peri-trichous bacteria
b- Lopho-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Monotrichous bacteria

177- Genetic information of bacteria is carried on
a- Messenger RNA
b- Transfer RN|A
c- Tran****** RNA
d- Double – Stranded DNA
178- Thermophilic bacteria grow at
a- 60 – 80 °C
b- 0 - 20°C
c-. 37°C
d- 100 - 120°C

179- Acidophilic bacteria grow at
a- pH 7.2 – 7.4
b- pH 5.0 – 5.5
c- pH 8.5 – 9.0
d- None of the above

180- Mycoplasma is
a- Neutrophilic bacteria
b- Acidophilic bacteria
c- Basophilic bacteria
d- All of the above

181- It is the adaptation of bacteria to the fresh medium
a- Lag phase
b- Decline phase
c- Logarithmic Phase
d- Stationary phase

182- Bacteria which do not cause hemolysis is
a- Beta-Hemolytic
b- Alpha-Hemolytic
c- Gama Hemolytic
d- None of the above

183- Normal flora of Lower intestine are all of the following except:
a- Staphylococci
b- Diphtheroids
c- Shigella
d- Lactobacillus

184- Opportunistic pathogens are all of the following except:
a- Cause a disease when the host defense are suppressed.
b- Are normal flora of healthy body
c- Are greatly harmful
d- Do not invade the body or tissue.
185- For disinfection of mattresses :
a- Hot air oven
b- Autoclave
c- Ethylene Oxide
d- Hydrogen Peroxide

186- Pyschrophilic bacteria grow at:
a- 10٠°C
b- 6٠°C
c- 14°C
d- 37°C

187- Bacteria which contain chlorophyll
a- Heterotrophic bacteria
b- Autotrophic bacteria
c- Photosynthetic bacteria
d- All of the above

188- Tricophyton is one of
a- Yeast
b- Moulds
c- Dermatophyte
d- Dimorphic Fungi

189- Plastomyces is one of
a- Dermatophytes
b- Dimorphic Fungi
c- Yeast
d- Moulds

190- Color of gram negative bacteria is
a- Violet
b- Green
c- Red
d- Black


BACTERIOLOGY
118- All are Prokaryotic cells except:
a- Fungi
b- Bacteria
c - Chlamydia
d- Mycoplasma

119- Viruses:
a- Contain only DNA or RNA
b - They Contain ribosome
c- Did not affected by antibiotics
d- a+c

120- All of these are essential structure except:
a- Nuclear body
b- Spores
c- Cell wall
d- Plasma Membrane

121- ________ is giving the shape to the bacteria
a.- Cytoplasmic Membrane
b- Capsule
c- Cell Wall
d- All of the above

122- One of its functions is selective permeability
a- Cell wall
b- Plasma membrane
c- Capsule
d- Spores

123- They are responsible for Haemagglutination Phenomenon
a- Flagella
b- Fimbria
c- Capsule
d- Cell wall





124- Clostridium Tetani is:
a- Atrichous bacteria
b- Mono-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria

125- Short curved or straight rods, motile by single polar flagellum
a- spirochaeta
b- Vibrio
c- Escherichia
d- Lactobacillus

126- Small gram negative cocci, occur in pairs
a- staphylococcus
b- streptococcus
c- neisseria
d- non of the above

127- Transfer of genetic information from one bacterium to another by
bacteriophages is:
a. Transformation
b. Tansduction
c. Conjugation
d. Mutation

128- Salmonella are:
a- Obligatory Aerobic bacteria
b.- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
c- Facultative Anaerobic bacteria
d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria

129- According to pH, vibrio cholera is
a- Osmophilic bacteria
b- Basophilic bacteria
c- Acidophilic bacteria
d- Neutrophilic bacteria




130- Staphylococci are:
a- Atrichous bacteria
b- Mono-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria

191- Acid Fast Bacteria
a- Salmonella
b- Shigella
c- M. Tuberculosis
d- E – Coli
192- Spherical or avoid cells occurring in chains
a- Staphylococci
b- Streptococci
c- Lactobacillus
d- Spiro chaeta

193- ……………… carries the genetic information
a- the envelope
b- the capsid
c- the nucleic acid
d- the prion

194- …………………… may be seen under light microscope
a- rota virus
b- influenza virus
c- herps virus
d- pox virus

195- viruses may be:
a- monomorphic
b- pleomorphic
c- dimorphic
d- all of the above

196- viral capside is formed of:
a- protein
b- glycogen
c- lipoprotein bilayer
d- glycoprotein

197- class III in Baltimor classification is:
a- double stranded DNA viruses
b- single stranded DNA viruses
c- double stranded RNA viruses
d- single stranded RNA viruses

198- Hierarchial virus classification system use the following characters except:
a- nature of nucleic acid
b- capside symmetry
c- diameter of viron & capside
d- virus molecular weight
199- in viral replication which is true:
a- penetration is the 1st step
b- assembly is the last step
c- relaease is the last step
d- all of the above

200- viron:
a- may be extracellular phase of virus
b- may be intracellular phase of virus
c- can grow and replicate
d- means “ virus – like “

201- pleomorphic viruses means :
a- virus which have constant shape
b- virus that may appear in 2 forms
c- virus that have not a constant morphology
d- virus that have spherical shape

202- vapor of gold is used in :
a- shadow casting technique
b- negative staining technique
c- positive staining technique
d- non of the above

203- direct diagnosis of virus :
a- ELISA Antibody
b- CFT
c- IFT
d- PCR virus

204- all of the following are required in cell culture except:
a- neutral PH
b- presence of buffer salts
c- presence of antibiotics
d- incubation at 20 C (( 30-37 C))

205- all of the following are diagnostic molecular biological technique except:
a- PCR
b- ELISA
c- nucleic acid hyperdization
d- DNA finger printing
206- PCR require all of the following except:
a- extracted DNA template
b- 2 specific primers
c- reation buffer
d- RNA polymerase

207- bacteriophage is :
a- virus that can be killed by antibiotic
b- virus that act like a bacteria
c- bacteria that act like a virus
d- virus that infect bacteria

208- all of the following viruses are transmitted by blood except:
a- HIV
b- HBV
c- HCV
d- herps virus

209-all of the following are RNA viruses except:
a- corona viridase
b- reoviridase
c- picorona viridase
d- pox viridase

210- penetration of naked virus is by :
a- fusion
b- endocytosis
c- translocation
d- all of the above

211- amniotic cavity inoculation is one type of virus culture in:
a- tissue wall
b- lab animals
c- embryonated egg
d- non of the above

212- …………….. is an invitro method amplification of a short sequence of target DNA
a- PCR
b- hyberdization
c- finger printing
d- all of the above

213- nucleic acid hyberdization means:
a- probe anneling or binding with it’s complementary
segment of NA
b- fragmentation of nucleic acid
c- amplification of nucleic acid
d- non of the above

214- DNA hyberdization is performed by:
a- primers
b- DNA labeled probe
c- restriction endonuclease
d- non of the above

215-PCR starts with :
a- annealing
b- denaturation of DNA
c-extension of primers
d- non of the above

216- ……………….. is a piece of DNA fragment of a particular gene that can bind specially with it’s complementary piece of DNA:
a- codon
b- probe
c- LCR
d- code

217- how many primers are used in PCR :
a- non
b- one
c- two
d- three

304-Lowenstein-Jensen media is used for the isolation for:
a- neisseria gonorrhea
b- mycobacterium tuberculosis
c- haemophilus influenza
d- staphylococcus aureus



305- Hekton-Enteric agar is the selective media for:
a- salmonella
b- streptococcus
c- staphylococcus
d- all of the above

306- the selective media for isolation of fungi is:
a- S-S agar
b- XLD agar
c- sabouraud glucose agar
d- Hekton-Enteric agar

307- gram positive rods with Chinese letter appearance:
a- mycobacterium tuberculosis
b- corynebacteria diphtheria
c- clostridium tetani
d- staphylococcus pneumonia

308- E lek test is done to diagnose :
a- streptococcus
b- staphylococcus aureus
c- clostridium tetani
d- corynebacteria diphtheria

309- all are lactose fermenter except:
a- E-COLI
b- proteus
c- klebsiella
d- enterobacter

310- produce pale colonies on MacConkey’s agar and have tendency to swarm on blood agar:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus





311- lactose frementer gram negative bacilli with mucoid growth:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus

312-non lactose fermenter gram negative bacilli produce H2S :
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus

313- Widal test is done for diagnosis of :
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- E-coli
d- klebsiella

314- the causative agent of enteric fever:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus

315- the most common cause of urinary tract infection :
a- E-coli
b- salmonella
c- shigella
d- streptococcus

316- an important cause of diarrhea in infant:
a- staphylococcus
b- E-coli
c- salmonella
d- shigella

317- the most common causative agent for peptic ulcer :
a- campylobacter
b- H-pylori
c- V-cholera
d- all of the above
318- TCBS is the selective media for isolation of:
a- H-pylori
b- V-cholera
c- E-coli
d- H influenza

319- gram negative bacilli strict aerobes grows on simple media producing a characteristic greenish pigment:
a- campylobacter
b- pseudomonas
c- pasterulla
d- bordetella

320- the bacteria which cause scarlet fever:
a- staphylococcus
b- streptococcus
c- salmonella
d- shigella

321- antistreptolysin O titer (ASO) is done for the diagnosis of:
a- group A streptococcus
b- group B streptococcus
c- staphylococcus aureus
d- staphylococcus albus

323- Loffler’s serum is used for isolation of:
a- anthrax
b- clostridium
c- diphtheria
d- T.B

324- gas gangrene is caused by:
a- clostridium tetani
b- clostridium botulinum
c- clostridium welchii
d- non of the above (( clostridium perfinges ))

325- Bacillary dysentery is caused by:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- cholera
d- all of the above

326- the cause of plague:
a- Y-enterocolitica
b- Y-pestis
c- Y pseudotuberculsois
d- non of the above

327- treponema palladium is the cause of :
a- T.B
b- gonorrhea
c- syphilis
d- AIDS

328- the venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL) is done for diagnosis of:
a- T.B
b- gonorrhea
c- syphilis
d- AIDS

329- Trachoma is caused by:
a- mycoplasma
b- chlamydiae
c-richettsia
d- mycobacteria

391- M-tuberculsis bacilli stain with :
a- gram stain
b- Zheil Nelson stain
c- Gimesa stain
d- all of the above

392- AIDS is transmitted through :
a- food
b- blood
c- semen
d- (b) & (c)
393- bacteria which cause syphilis:
a- Neisseria gonorrhea
b- Viencent angina
c- Treponema palladium
d- Yersinia pestis

394- to diagnose syphilis:
a- RPR
b- VDRL
c- Wasserman
d- all of the above

395- streptococci secret:
a- streptolysin O
b- streptolysin S
c- streptokinase
d- all of the above

396- disease caused by streptococci:
a- scarlet fever
b- purperal sepsis
c- rheumatic fever
d- all of the above

397- staphylococci secrets:
a- coagulase enzyme
b- fibrinolysin
c- hyaluronidase
d- all of the above

398- gram positive bacilli:
a- Klebsilla
b- Salmonella
c- Proteus
d- C-diphtheria

399- meningeococcal meningitis is transmitted by :
a- food
b- droplet
c- touch
d- all of the above

400- dark field microscopy is used to diagnose :
a- T.B.
b- syphilis
c- gonorrhea
d- AIDS

401- it cause food poisining with flacid paralysis:
a- clostridium tetani
b- clostridium welchii
c- clostridium botulinium
d- all of the above

402- the infective stage of plasmodium vivax :
a-merozoites
b- sporozoites
c- schizont
d- trophozoite

403- Pirenella conica snail is the intermediate host of:
a- schistosoma haematobium
b- fasciola hiptica
c- heterphyes heterophyes
d- diphyllobothrium latum

404- Bulinus truncates snail is the intermediate host of :
a- fasciola hepatica
b- fasciola gigantica
c- schistosoma haematobium
d- schistosoma mansonii

405- to isolate meningiococci we have to culture the sample on:
a- Bordet Gengou
b- modified Thayer martin media
c- Lowenstein Jensen media
d- all of the above

406- to isolate fungi :
a- Brain-Heart infusion media
b- tissue culture
c- Lowenstein –Jensen media
d- chocolate agar

407- to isolate H- influenza:
a- blood agar
b- chocolate agar
c- mac Conkey media
d- all of the above

408- the bacteria which cause pseudomembrainous conjunctivitis :
a- N.gonorrhea
b- C. diphtheria
c- staphylococcus
d- Chlamydia

409- the best sample to diagnose meningitis :
a- blood
b- sputum
c- CSF
d- urine

410- used to stain Chlamydia
a- gram stain
b- giemsa stain
c- wright stain
d- all of the above
411-……….. is used as transport medium for sample in which cholera is suspected
a- Cary-Blair media
b- Stuart media
c- Alkaline peptone water
d- glycerol

412- the color of XLD medium:
a- green
b- red
c- yellow
d- blue

413- CIN medium is used to isolate:
a- E.coli
b- Vibrio cholera
c- yersinia
d- salmonella

414- to make wet mount preparation:
a- 10 % KOH
b- 10 % Na OH
c- 10 % Na CO3
d- 10% Na Cl

415- we do wet mount preparation for vaginal smear To diagnose:
a- T.vaginalis
b- N.gonorrhea
c- streptococci
d- staphylococci

416- to isolate viruses:
a- Loeffler media
b- tissue culture
c- Bordet –Gengou media
d- Brain- Heart infusion

417- to diagnose whooping cough :
a- Bordet –Gengou media
b- Lowenstein –Jensen media
c- modified Thayer martin media
d- New York city agar

418- to diagnose systemic infection we do :
a- urine culture
b- CSF culture
c- blood culture
d- sputum culture

419- we give no growth for blood culture after:
a- 1 week
b- 8 weeks
c- 6 weeks
d- 3 weeks





420- to dissolve mucous in sputum sample :
a- 10% NaOH
b- 30 % NaOH
c- 10 % KOH
d- 10% NaCl

421- mutualism means:
a- one partener benefits , other unaffected
b- both partner benefit
c- one partner benefit , other damaged
d- living together

422- Commensalisms means:
a- living together
b- one partner benefit , other damaged
c- both partner benefit
d- one partner benefits , other unaffected

423- Balantidium coli moves by:
a- flagella
b- cilia
d- pseudopod
d- all of the above

424- Mouth inhabitant:
a- Trichomonas hominis
b- Trichomonas tenax
c- Trichomonas vaginalis
d- giardia lamblia

425- Transmitted by sexual intercourse:
a- toxoplasma
b- giardia lamblia
c- Trichomonas vaginalis
d- all of the above

465- citrate utilization test is done to assist identification of:
a- gram +ve bacteria
b- gram –ve bacteria
c- entrobacteria
d- enterococcus

466- the Kovac's reagent used in the following biochemical tests:
a- catalase
b- coagulase
c- indole
d- methyl red

467- positive results for H2S production appear as …. Colour:
a- black
c- yellow
c- red
d- green

468-………. Give positive coagulase test:
a- streptococci
b- staphylococcus aureus
c- staphylococcus saprophyticus
d- Escherichia coli

469- methyl red test is performed with:
a- Erlich reagent
b- Kovac's reagent
c- Voges proskaur
d- non of the above

470- ………… give positive result with urease test:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- Y. enterocolitica
d- all of the above

471-…………. test is used to differentiate between bacteroides & brucella:
a- indole
b- methyl red
c- H2S production
d- nitrate reduction

472- DNAase test is positive with:
a- streptococcus pneumonia
b- E.coli
c- staphylococcus aureus
d- staphylococcus epidermis

473- ………… solution used in the gram stain technique acts as a mordant:
a- crystal violet
b- safranine
c- iodine
d- alcohol

474- the counter stain in Ziehl- Neelson stain is :
a- malachite green
b- methylene blue
c- iodine
d- (a) & (b)

475- bile solubility test is positive with :
a- streptococcus viridans
b- streptococcus pneumonia
c- streptococcus agalectiae
d- streptococcus pyrogenes
During replication of DNA, copying errors may occur and this is called
a- Conjugation
b- Transduction
c- Transformation
d- Mutation

132- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
a- grow only in presence of oxygen
b- grow only in absence of oxygen
c- grow either in presence or absence of oxygen
d- grow in presence of oxygen traces and 5 – 10% CO2

133- Neutrophilic bacteria grow well at
a- pH 8.5 – 9.0
b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
c- pH 5.0 – 5.5
d- pH 2.5 – 3.0

134- The rate of cell death increase and bacterial growth stopped, this is
a- Adaptation phase
b- Exponential phase .
c- Stationary phase.
d- Decline Phase

135- Beta-hemolytic
a- Cause complete hemolysis of RBC’s
b- Cause chemical change of Hemoglobin in RBC’s
c- Do not cause hemolysis
d- None of them





146- Mesophilic bacteria grow at:
a- 37°C
b- 14°C
c- 60°C
d- 120°C

137- Circulation of Bacteria and its toxins in blood
a- Pyaemia
b- Toxemia
c.- Bacteremia - without toxins
d- Septicemia

138- Disinfections that applied on living or injured tissues:
a- Sterilization
b- Antiseptic
c- Sanitation
d- Decontamination

139- Hot air oven is used for sterilization of
a- Glass
b- Rubber Gloves
c.- Plastic Syringes
d- Catheters

140- Disinfectant for superficial fungal infection
a- Phenol
b- Potassium permanganate
c- Chlorine
d- Hypochlorite compounds

141- Rifampin
a- inhibit cell wall synthesis
b- inhibit protein synthesis
c- inhibit folic acid pathway
d- inhibit mRNA synthesis

142- Transacetylase inactivate
a- aminoglycosides
b- chloramphenicol
c- penicillin
d- cephalosporins

143- The color of gram positive bacteria is
a- Yellow
b- Black.
c- Pink
d- Violet

144- Selective media for fungi
a- blood agar
b- Mac Conkey agar
c- Nutrient agar
d- Sabourand’s dextrose agar

145- Histoplasma is a :
a- Systemic mycosis
b- Sub – Cutaneous mycosis
c- Cutaneous mycosis
d- Superficial mycosis

146- All are asexual spores produced by mould except
a- Conidio – spores
b- Sporangio – spores
c- Endospores
d- Arthro – spores

147- They reproduce only by Asexual reproduction
a- Blastomycosis
b- Deutromycosis
c- Ascomycetes
d- Zygomycetes

148- The functions of cell wall is all of the following except:
a- Giving the shape to the bacteria
b- Carrying somatic antigen
c-Selective permeability& transport of solutes = plasma membrane
d- Protect the bacteria from plasmolysis

149- Atrichous Bacteria are:
a- Bacteria contain one flagellum
b- Bacteria contain 2 flagella
c- Bacteria without flagella
d- Bacteria with a tuft of flagella

150-__________ are essential for host cell attachment:
a- Flagella
b- Fimbria
c- Spores
d- Capsules

151- Irregular clusters of spherical cells:
a- Streptococcus
b- Staphylococcus
c- Lactobacillus
d- Escherichia

152- Clostridium Botulinum is:
a- Obligatory Aerobic Bacteria
b- Facultative Anaerobic Bacteria
c- Obligatory Anaerobic Bacteria
d- Micro- aerophilic Bacteria

153- Basophilic Bacteria grow well at:
a- pH 8.5 – 9.0
b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
c- pH 5.0 – 5.5
d- None of the above

154- Cells are divided at high & constant rate:
a- Decline Phase
b- Stationary Phase
c- Log Exponential Phase
d- Adaptation Phase

155- The dominant bacterial species in dental plaque are:
a- Coagulase Negative Staphylococci
b- Lactobacillus
c- Bacteroides
d- Streptococcus Sanguis

156- The spread of Pyogenic Bacteria in blood stream to different organs & produce multiple abscess is:
a- Septicemia
b- Bacteremia
c-Toxemia
d- Pyaemia
157- Inhibit the growth of micro organisms
a- Bacteriostatic
b- Bactericidal
c- Fungicidal
d- Germicidal

158- To sterilize fluid damaged by heat:
a- Gaseous Sterilization
b- Heat Sterilization
c- Filtration
d- Ionizing Radiation

159- For water disinfection we use:
a- Hydrogen peroxide
b- Formaldehyde
c- Chlorine
d- Hypochlorite compounds

160- Mechanism of action of penicillin:
a- Block peptidoglycan synthesis
b- Inhibit peptidyglycan cross – linking
c- inhibit folic acid pathway
d- inhibit protein synthesis

161- Sulfonamides:
a- inhibit cell wall synthesis
b- inhibit protein synthesis
c- inhibit DNA synthesis
d- inhibit folic acid pathway

162- Acetylase inactivates:
a- B – Lactam antibiotics
b- Aminoglycosides
c- Cloramphenicol
d- All of the above

163- Ringworm disease is caused by
a- Zygomycetes
b- Ascomycetes
c- Blastomycosis
d- None of the above

164- For wet – mount technique we add:
a- NaoH
b- K oH
c- H2 O2
d- All of the above

165- They are transmitted by arthropods
a- Chlamydia
b- Spirochetes
c- Mycoplasma
d- All of the above

166- In the past they were listed as large viruses
a- Richettsia
b- Mycoplasma
c- Chlamydia
d- None of the above

167- Bacteria multiply by:
a- Replication cycle
b- Simple binary fission
c- Sexual reproduction
d- All of the above

168- It protects bacteria from antibiotics
a- Capsule
b- Cell membrane
c- Flagella
d- Fimbria

169- Vibro cholera is:
a- Mono –trichous bacteria
b- Atrichous bacteria
c- Lopho-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria

170- Short rods, motile by peritrichous flagella
a- Spirochaeta
b- Lactobacillus
c- Escherichia coli
d- Vibrio
171- To take up soluble DNA fragments derived from other, closely related species is:
a. Mutation
b. Transformation
c. Transduction
d. Conjugation

172- Tuberculosis are
a- micro-airophilic
b- Facultative anaerobic
c- Obligatory anaerobic
d- Obligatory aerobic

173- According to pH, Lactobacillus is
a- Neutrophlic bacteria
b- Acidophilic bacteria
c- Basophilic bacteria
d- None of the above

174- Bacteria without cell Wall
a- Chlamydia
b- Rickettsia
c- Mycoplasma
d.- Spirochetes

175- Brucella Melitensis is
a- Obligatory aerobic bacteria
b- Obligatory anaerobic bacteria
c- Facultative anaerobic bacteria
d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria

176- Pseudomonas aeroginosa is
a- Peri-trichous bacteria
b- Lopho-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Monotrichous bacteria

177- Genetic information of bacteria is carried on
a- Messenger RNA
b- Transfer RN|A
c- Tran****** RNA
d- Double – Stranded DNA
178- Thermophilic bacteria grow at
a- 60 – 80 °C
b- 0 - 20°C
c-. 37°C
d- 100 - 120°C

179- Acidophilic bacteria grow at
a- pH 7.2 – 7.4
b- pH 5.0 – 5.5
c- pH 8.5 – 9.0
d- None of the above

180- Mycoplasma is
a- Neutrophilic bacteria
b- Acidophilic bacteria
c- Basophilic bacteria
d- All of the above

181- It is the adaptation of bacteria to the fresh medium
a- Lag phase
b- Decline phase
c- Logarithmic Phase
d- Stationary phase

182- Bacteria which do not cause hemolysis is
a- Beta-Hemolytic
b- Alpha-Hemolytic
c- Gama Hemolytic
d- None of the above

183- Normal flora of Lower intestine are all of the following except:
a- Staphylococci
b- Diphtheroids
c- Shigella
d- Lactobacillus

184- Opportunistic pathogens are all of the following except:
a- Cause a disease when the host defense are suppressed.
b- Are normal flora of healthy body
c- Are greatly harmful
d- Do not invade the body or tissue.
185- For disinfection of mattresses :
a- Hot air oven
b- Autoclave
c- Ethylene Oxide
d- Hydrogen Peroxide

186- Pyschrophilic bacteria grow at:
a- 10٠°C
b- 6٠°C
c- 14°C
d- 37°C

187- Bacteria which contain chlorophyll
a- Heterotrophic bacteria
b- Autotrophic bacteria
c- Photosynthetic bacteria
d- All of the above

188- Tricophyton is one of
a- Yeast
b- Moulds
c- Dermatophyte
d- Dimorphic Fungi

189- Plastomyces is one of
a- Dermatophytes
b- Dimorphic Fungi
c- Yeast
d- Moulds

190- Color of gram negative bacteria is
a- Violet
b- Green
c- Red
d- Black


BACTERIOLOGY
118- All are Prokaryotic cells except:
a- Fungi
b- Bacteria
c - Chlamydia
d- Mycoplasma

119- Viruses:
a- Contain only DNA or RNA
b - They Contain ribosome
c- Did not affected by antibiotics
d- a+c

120- All of these are essential structure except:
a- Nuclear body
b- Spores
c- Cell wall
d- Plasma Membrane

121- ________ is giving the shape to the bacteria
a.- Cytoplasmic Membrane
b- Capsule
c- Cell Wall
d- All of the above

122- One of its functions is selective permeability
a- Cell wall
b- Plasma membrane
c- Capsule
d- Spores

123- They are responsible for Haemagglutination Phenomenon
a- Flagella
b- Fimbria
c- Capsule
d- Cell wall





124- Clostridium Tetani is:
a- Atrichous bacteria
b- Mono-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria

125- Short curved or straight rods, motile by single polar flagellum
a- spirochaeta
b- Vibrio
c- Escherichia
d- Lactobacillus

126- Small gram negative cocci, occur in pairs
a- staphylococcus
b- streptococcus
c- neisseria
d- non of the above

127- Transfer of genetic information from one bacterium to another by
bacteriophages is:
a. Transformation
b. Tansduction
c. Conjugation
d. Mutation

128- Salmonella are:
a- Obligatory Aerobic bacteria
b.- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
c- Facultative Anaerobic bacteria
d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria

129- According to pH, vibrio cholera is
a- Osmophilic bacteria
b- Basophilic bacteria
c- Acidophilic bacteria
d- Neutrophilic bacteria




130- Staphylococci are:
a- Atrichous bacteria
b- Mono-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria

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1- Neutrophils count in normal patient
a. 40 – 75 %
b. 21- 40 %
c. 1-6%
d. 0 -1 %.
2- Raised reticulocyte counts found when there is
a. Hemolytic anemia
b. Diabetius mellitus
c. Pancretic disease
d. Stomach ulcer
3- Patient comes to the lab. After take meal since two hours the normal level of his glucose is
a. 100 – 150 mg/dl.
b. 70 – 110 mg/dl.
c. 50 – 90 mg/dl.
d. 100 – 150 gm/l.
4- which stain most commonly used in microbiology
a. Leishman stain
b. Romanosky stain
c. Gram stain
d. Gimsa stain
e. ALL.
5- Immunoglobin consists of five parts of Antibodies (Pentamoric).
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgD
d. IgA
e. IgE
6- A good complement fixing antibodies
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgD
d. IgE
7- Cells not contain nucleus.
a. Erythrocyte
b. Leukocyte
c. Platelets
d. blast cell
8- Which of the following immunoglobulins is present normally in plasma at the highest concentration?
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD
e. IgE
9- Which immunoglobulin is the principal one found in secretions such as milk?
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD
e. IgE
10- In potential diabetic patient, the confirming test used is
a. Random blood sugar
b. Fasting blood sugar
c. Oral blood sugar tolerance
d. All of the above
11- Which of following organs participate in billrubin?
a. Heart
b. Kidney
c. Pancrease
d. Liver
12- In emergency case which of the following test do for glucose
a. Fast blood sugar
b. Random blood sugar
c. Oral blood sugar tolerance
d. Post prandial blood sugar
13- Deficiency in folate & vitamin B12 cause
a. Megaloblastic Anemia
b. Liver cirrhosis
c. Kidney failure
d. Kala azar
14- Which of the following immunoglubin have four molecules?
a. IgG
b. IgE
c. IgA
d. IgM + 4
15- Which of the following transmitted through blood transfusion
a. Malaria
b. Aids
c. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
d. All of the above
16- Red blood cell synthesis in bone marrow from
a. Fate cell
b. Cord cell
c. Myeloid cell
d. Stem cells
17- Which of the following happen in prolonged fast
a. Kenton in urine
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Hypocholestremia

18- _______ Can growth in aeorobic and anaeorobic except
a. Clostridium
b. Salmonella
c. Shigella
d. E.col
e. Haemophillus
19- We can diagnose W.bancrofti by investigate
a. Blood smear
b. Urine Exam.
c. A and B
d. Stool smear
20- The all ABO group true except:
a. AB group transfusion only to person AB
b. A group transfusion to group A and O group
c. O group can transfusion into person have A and B and O group
d. O group the contain both Antigen A and B
21- The gram stains use for:
a. Mycobacteruim
b. Borrela
c. Dipheteria
d. E.coli

22- ESR measured
a. Millimeters
b. Centimeter
c. Milligram
d. Dl.

23- Wuchereria Bancrofti diagnose:
a. Microscopic examination of blood smears = اخترت هذي
b. Microscopic examination of concentrated urine
c. Microscopic examination of stool smear
d. Microscopic examination of blood or urine smears
24- In the formol-ether technique the parasite found in:
a. ether layer
b. formol layer
c. sediment
d. Fecal deprise
25- Normocytic Normochromic anemia found in
a. Pernicious anemia
b. Megaloplastic anemia
c. a plastic anemia
d. iron deficiency
26- The dimeric Antibodies is
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgE
d. IgD
e. IgA
27- Which of the following of immunoglobulin inflexible:
a. IgG
b. Ig M
c. IgE
28- Yellow brown egg
a. Ascaris lumbrcoid
b. Schistosoma mansoni
c. Giardia lamblia
d. Entamoeba histolytica

29- Pathogen should do:-
a. Infect-transmitted-Reproduce
b. Reproduce- Infect-Tans
c. transmitted – Infect – Reproduce
d. ALL
e. Non above





30- The Ag in ABO system:-
a. A.B.C
b. A.B.O
c. A.B.H

31- Reticulocyte stain with super vital to show:-
a. RNA
b. Organs
c. Network
d. Nucleus

32- In chemistry lab use:-
a. Green tube
b. Red tube
c. Blue tube
d. Lavender

33- In stool conce. Method should not use with:-
a. S.mansoni
b. Fascioloa egg
c. H.nana
d. A & C
e. Ascaris

34- Give double zone in blood agar:-
a. α-hemolytic streptococci
b. β-hemolytic streptococci
c. ALL
d. Non

35- In AML we see:-
a. Blast cell more 20%
b. No blast cells
c. More increase in WBCs
d. ALL
36- EDITA tube has a color:-
a. Purple
b. Green
c. Blue
d. Yellow

37- Hot air oven temp.
a. 121 C° for 15 min
b. 180 C° for 30 min
c. 160 C° for 30 min
d. ALL

38- Chinese litter sees in:-
a. C. diphtheria
b. S.pyogenes
c. Staph aureus
d. E.coli

39- Detection of hepatitis- C by:-
a. Anti-B
b. Anti-A
c. Anti-C
d. Anti-D

40- We done the following exam for donor except:-
a. HIV
b. HCV
c. H BV
d. H AV

41- Lipid and clot factor remove to obtain:-
a. Plasma
b. Plasma protein
c. Serum
d. Non above
42- In blood group use:-
a. Known cell with unknown serum
b. Unknown cell with known serum
c. Know cell with unknown cell
d. Unknown cell with unknown serum



دعوااتكم لنا بالتوفيق

مشكووور اخ زيزو

يعطيك العافيه

السلام عليكم ورحمته الله وبركاتوا
ابشركم يااحلي اعضاء بافضل منتدي واللي استفدت منه كتيرررر اني اختبررت هيئه يوم امس 7 مارس2011 والحمدلله توفقت ونجحت والاسئله اللي داكرتها ماهي محددة انا بالنسبه داكرت مايقرب شهر من خلال مدكرات ابو راشد وكدلك من خلال موقعنا الغالي والحمدلله توفقت وحبيت ادكر شي جاني بالاختبار
ملاحظه الاجابه باللون الاحمر

جاني سوال يقول الغدة الدرقيه تسمي الام وسوال يقول الشاقيله غير متحركه وسوال يقول صبغه جرام تصبغ e.coli
وسوال يقول الاميباء تصيغ بجمساء ولا جرام ولا ليشمانيا ماعرفته بس اتوقع جرام
وسوال يقول الانتي اللي يخترق المشيمه طبعا اي جي جي anti human globaum test do wash of rbc because all serum contain
hmmunoglobulin
leukocyte responsible for celluar lmunity
t-lymphocyt
retculocyte immatuer cell of
erythrocytes
hormone replication of RBC
Erythropoietin
the Chider Rh positive and Mother Rh negative
Anti -D Immune
Variation in RBC size
Aniso cytosis
prolonged fast cause
Keten in urine
The (U) unit used
Enzymatic activity
Stimulate on serum calcium level
prolonged application of touriquet on arm
Urine culture media
CLED Ager
Confirmotry test Streptoccus pneumonia
Bile solubility
Oxidase+ve
Pseudomonas aurogenase and Neisseria
Rice Watery Stool
Vibro cholera
Sterilization in hot air oven
160c for 45- 60 min
Bactera form chain
Streptococci
Alkalin skin burn neutralized by
Boric acid powder
measuring the osmtic strength
Osmometer
Transmitted through blood transfusion
Malaria -Aids - Cytomegalovirus - All of the above
Flask shape parasite
Giardia lambilia
ESR measured
Millimeters
Non motile bactera
Shiglla
ABO system
A.B.H هداماادكرة مما جاتني بس نصحيه لاتعتمد ع الحفظ افهم السوال زين
مع امنياتي لكم بالتوفيق

الحمدلله اختبرت يوم الاربعاء9-3-2011 ةنجحت هادي الاسئله اللي افتكرتها
هادي الاسئله اللي افتكرتها وكتبتها اول ماخرجت طبعا صيغه السوال مو نفسها بس الاجابة وحده عشان كدا لازم تركزو في السوال
Fixed tissue macrophages are
دا السوال جا انو كل الخيارات التاليه خطا عن
المونو سيت ماعدا اللي هي وظيفه الابتلاع
a. Basophilesهنا جا سؤال عنها انها اقل عددا
b. Monocyts
c. Lymphocytes
d. Neutrophils
e. Eosinophils.
A guideline reference range for MCHC in health patient
a. 80-98 fl.
b. 27-32 pg
c. 31.5-36 g/dl.
d. 15.18 mg/dl.
e. 13.5-18 g/dl.
The best anticoagulant used for determination of erythrocytes sedimentation rate is:
• Na citrate
• EDTA
• Heparin
• None of the above
In DIC all the following is increased except
a. PT
b. APTT
c. TT
d. Platelets
None of the above
HAV transmission
a. Blood
b. Body fluid
c. Sexual contact
d. Fecal oral
Enterococci are typically arranged in pairs and can not be or difficult differentiated from
a. Streptococci
b. Staphylococci
c. Spirochete
d. Meningococci
Patient comes to the lab. After take meal since two hours the normal level of his glucose is
a. 100 – 150 mg/dl.
b. 70 – 110 mg/dl.
c. 50 – 90 mg/dl.
100 – 150 gm/
Which is most abundant (prevalence)?
a. Plasmodium falciparum.جا سوال عنوبلازموديوم ينتج ماء اسود انا اخترت دا
b. P.ovali.
c. P.malari.
P.vivax

Blood grouping antibodies are
a. IgG
b. IgM جا سؤالين عنو ايت واحد حق التحليل او الاصابه الحديثه برايمري اميونو
c. IgE
d. IgD
e. IgA
A good complement fixing antibodies
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgD


Antibodies associated in Rh
a. IgGجا سؤال عنو التحليل او الاصابه القديمه اللي هو السكندري اميونو
b. IgM
c. IgE
d. IgD
e. IgA
Congenital Parasites infected human
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Trypanosoma sp.
d. Plasmodium malaria
e. Toxoplasma gondii السوال جا انو هذا الكائن يشخص في السرولوجي
The first aid you do in swallowing of an acid or alkali chemical or poisons.
a. Wash immediately in running water
b. Seek medical attention
c. Trans to other place
d. Call the physician
e. Immediately rinse the mouth well with water.
A case conjunctivitis has been suspected to be trachoma . wich of the following organisms is MOST likely to be the causative agent :جا زي ماهو بالنص بالزببببط
• Ricketsia species
• Boreerlia vincenti
• Clamydia species
• Treponema pallidum
• Borrelia duttoni
The biochemical test differentiate S.pneumonia from other streptococci
a. Catalase
b. Coagulase
c. Citrate
d. Bile solubility
Bacillary dysentery caused by
a. Shigella جا لها سوالين دا السوال والتاني ان كل الخيارات صحيحه للشجيلا ماعدا انها تخمر الالكتوز(طبعا هي ماتخمر الاكتوز)
b. Cambylobacter
c. Chylamidia
d. Salmonella
A carbon dioxide enriched atmosphere is required for the culture of : جا دا السوال بالنص بس ماكان في All the bove
• Bacillus anthracisانا اخترت دي ومدري صح ولالا
• Heamophilus influnzae
• Brodetella pertussis
• Pseudomonas aeruginosa
• Yersinia pestis
• All the bove
Hormones from cortex
a. Thyroxin
b. Oxytocin
c. Prolactin
d. Cortesol
Philadelphia chromosome is a specific chromosomal abnormality that is associated with.
a. ALL
b. AML
c. CML
d. None.
Cells not contain nucleus.
a. Erythrocyte
b. Leukocyte
c. Platelets
d. blast cell
T. cell maturation in
a. Bon marrow
b. Thymus
c. Spleen
d. Liver
Which of the following organism oxidase positive
a. Psedomonas only
b. Nessieria only
c. E.coli
d. Psedomonas & nessieria
Which of the following is true?
a. RH-ve person safely donate for person RH+ve person
b. RH+ve person safely donate for person RH-ve person
c. A blood group person donate for B group person
d. All of the above
In Pregnancy test we measure
a. LDH
b. Estrogen
c. α HCG
d. βHCG
Normal range of uric acid?
a. 2-5 mg/dl.
b. 3-7
c. 5-10
d. 70 -110 mg/dl
Cause Kala- azar:
a. leishmania tropica
b. leishmania braziliense
c. leishmania donovani
d. leishmania Mexicana

All of the following test use in myocardial except
a. Creatinin
b. Creatinin clearance
c. sGPT
d. sGOT
Adrenal gland upside of?
a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. Brain
d. Heart
Eosinphil raised in the following except?
a. Allergic
b. Parasitic disease
c. Hodgkin disease
d. Bacterial disease
Test for Intrinsic pathway:
a. Bleeding time
b. Thrombin time
c. Prothrombin time
d. Partial thromboplastin time PTT
The contamination of lens of microscope which cause eye infection?
a. B. anthrax
b. S.pyogenes
c. Staph.aureus
d. Clostredium tetani
Pathogens can enter the body through?
a. Dry skin
b. Wet skin
c. Unbroken skin
d. Scratch skin
More abundant leukocyteجاس وال مرره طويل وماافتكرو بس كان دا الجواب والمهم كان من ضمن السوال انها توجد بكميه كبيره
a. Basophile
b. Monocyte
c. Lymphocyte
d. Neutrophils
e. Eosinoph
One test in the following can diagnose anemia :
a. CBC
b. PT
c. PTT
d. Platelets
e. Leukocyte
Substance can not trans and absorbed without a factor
a. Iron
b. Vitamin B12
c. Folic acid
d. Vitamin A
chronic carrier state may occur in
a. HBV
b. AIDS
c. E.coli
d. Mumps
e. Rubella
The total leukocytes count less than 4,000/cmm is found in
a. Typhoid infection
b. Leukopenia
a. S.Pyogenes
c. A and B


Lenses near the slide in light microscope:
a. Objective
b. Stage
c. Eye lenses
Storage temperature of platelets
a. 37 C
b. 35 – 40
c. 22 – 27
d. -4
Hb range in adult:-
a. 13.5 - 17.5 gm/dl.
b. 12 -16 gm/dl
c. 13.5 - 17.5 mg/dl.
d. 11 – 15 gm/dl.
The following parasite will not take the gimsa stain:
a. leishmanai.
b. Trypanosoma
c. Schistosoma
d. Malaria
e. Filaria
The antibody of blood group is AB:
a. Anti A and B
b. Anti A and C
c. Anti A and O
d. Non All of the above
All of the following bacteria cell components except
a. Cell wall
b. Cell membrane
c. Nucleus
d. Cytoplasm
e. Pili
Heprenized syringe use to collect __________ sample
a. Synovial
b. CSF
c. Venous
d. Arterial
Streptococci are
a. α-hemolytic
b. β-hemolytic
c. γ-hemolytic
d. ALL
Serum is plasma without
a. Lipid
b. Cholesterol
c. Fibrinogen
d. Fibrin
CPDA anticoagulant to store blood for :
a. 45
b. 21
c. 10
d. 35
Zile-Neelsen stain for stainingماجاني دا الكائن جا واحد تاني اسمو غريب واخترتو انتو دورو ايت كائن يصبغ بهادي الصبغه
a. Mycobacteria
b. E.coli
c. Corynebacterium diphteria
d. Salmonella
During reaction of 2 chemical substances , the color produced asses by :
a. Spectrophotometer
b. Flame photometer
c. ELISA
Flourometry use (S) _________ as source of light .
• Deuterium lamp
• Mercury-arc lamps
• Halogen lamp
• Hallow high energy cathode lamp ( HCL )
• Tungsten lamp
Thromobocytosis is a common finding in which of the following diseases :
• Von willebrand disease
• Immune thromobocytosis purpura
• Iron deficiency anemia
• Sickle cell anemia )
• Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
All of the following are classified as streptococci EXCEPT :
• S. Agalactiae
• S. pyogenes
• S. mutants
• S. Aureus
Normal value of Lymphocyte
a. 55%
b. 25%
c. 70%
Infective stage of hook worms
a. Larva
b. Egg
c. Cyst
d. Metacercaria
Coombs test used for
a. Auto antibodies on surfase RBCs
b. Antigene RBCs
c. Antibodies in serum
d. Antigene on Cells
A heamocytometer cannot be used for the counting which of the following :
• Red blood cells
• Sperm
• Total white blood cells
• Lymphocytes
• Platelets
-جا سؤال عن جهاز الكروماتوجرافي يستخدم لماذا انا جاوبت اللون
الطور المعدي للدوده الدبوسيه ال EGG
Test differentiate staphylococci from streptococci
a. Catalase
b. Coagulase
c. Citrate
d. Bile solubility

بكتريا الهليوبكترمميزاتها؟؟+ve coccobacilli
كل الخيارات تستخدم في الفرن الجاف ماعدا؟gloves
بكترياc.botulism تسبب botulism
جرام بوزتيف كابسول؟؟ كان الخيارات ستاف وستربتو و meningococci
BHS increase??sickle cell anemia

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