1. In a disc diffusion susceptibility test, which of the following can result if discs are placed on the inoculated media and left at room temperature for an hour before incubation?
a. the antibiotic would not diffuse in to the medium, resulting in no zone
b. zones of smaller diameter would result
c. zones of larger diameter would result
d. there would be no effect on the final zone diameter
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2. Group B , B-hemolytic streptococci may be distinguished from other hemolytic streptococci by which of the following procedures ?
a. lancefiled typing
b. growth in 6.5 % NaCl broth
c. growth on bile esculin medium
d. bacitracin susceptibility
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3. The stock culture needed for quality control testing of motility is:
a. Salmonella typhimurium / Escherichia coli
b. Escherichia coli / Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Serratia marcescens / Escherichia coli
d. Shigella sonnei / Escherichia coli
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4. An unusual number of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (determined by the Kirby-Bauer method) were isolated in the laboratory in the past month. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
a. incubation of the susceptibility plates at 35 C
b. deterioration of the methicillin discs
c. inoculation of plates 10 minutes after standardizing the inoculum
d. standardization of the inoculum to 0.5 McFarland turbidity standard
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5. Blood collected in EDTA undergoes which of the following changes if kept at room temperature for 6 – 24 hours.
a. increased hematocrit and MCV
b. increased sedimentation rate and MCV
c. increased MCHC and MCV
d. decreased Reticulocyte count and hematocrit

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6. A 56- years-old man was admitted to the hospital for treatment of a bleeding ulcer. The following laboratory data where obtained:
RBC 4.2 * 1012 / L Serum iron 40 Mg/dl
Hct 30% TIBC 460 Mg/dl
Hgb 8.5 gm/dl Serum ferritin 12 mg/ml
WBC 5.0 * 109 /L
Examination of the bone marrow revealed the absence of iron stores . there data are most consistent with which of the following conditions ?
a. iron deficiency anemia
b. anemia of chronic disease
c. hemochromatosis
d. acute blood loss
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7. What is the mean corpuscular volume ( MCV ) if the hematocrit is 20% , the RBC is 1,500,000/ML , and the hemoglobin is 6 gm/dl ?
a. 68 fl
b. 75 fl
c. 115 fl
d. 133 fl
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8. The following result was obtained in a Creatinine clearance evaluation:
Urine concentration 0.084 gm/dl (7.43 mmol / L)
Urine volume 1440 ml/24 hr
Serum concentration 1.4 mg/ dl (124 Mmol /L)
Body surface area 1.60 m2 (average = 1.73 m2
The Creatinine clearance in Ml / min is:
a. 0.006
b. 0.022
c. 0.60
d. 64.9
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9. The serum glucose concentration of a specimen from a diabetic patient undergoing a two-hour glucose tolerance test should return to the baseline (fasting level) after a minimum of:
a 30 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 90 minutes
d. 120 minutes
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10. A colorimetric method calls for the use of 0.1 Ml serum , 5 Ml of reagent, and 4.9 Ml of water. What is the dilution of the serum in the final solution?
a. 1 to 5
b. 1 to 10
c. 1 to 50
d. 1 to 100
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11. Which of the following is the formula for calculating the unknown concentration based on Beers law?
( A = absorbance , C = concentration )
a. ( A unknown ) * C standard
( A standard )
b. C standard X A unknown
c. A standard X A unknown
d. ( C standard ) X 100
( A standard )
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12. Which of the following statements about ABO-hemolytic disease of the newborn are true?
1. it usually requires an exchange transfusion
2. it can occur in the first born
3. it frequently results in stillbirth
4. it is frequently seen in group O mothers
a. only 1,2 and 3 are correct
b. only 1 and 3 are correct
c. only 4 is correct
d. all are correct
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13. A unit of blood that has been out of your control for ten minutes, without being refrigerated, should be:
1. Cultured for bacterial contamination
2. Inspected for container closure
3. Stored at room temperature
4. Recorded to indicate return
a. only 1,2 and 3 are correct
b. only 1 and 3 are correct
c. only 4 is correct
d. all are correct

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14. A rapid indirect latex slide test showed no agglutination and was reported as negative on a woman who , on physical examination , was thought to be pregnant . a possible reason for the negative test result is :
a. urine glucose was increased
b. misinterpretation of the test
c. urine specific gravity was greater than 1.015
d. urine protein was greater than 100 mg/dl

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15. In systemic lupus erythematosus. High levels of which of the following antibodies are seen?
a. anti- mitochondrial
b. anti- smooth muscle
c. anti- DNA
d. anti- parietal cell
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16. An RNA –containing virus is:
a. HAV
b. HBV
c. CMV
d. HSV
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17. The lipid component which measurement would be the most severely affected by analysis of a non – fasting specimen is

a) Triglycerides b) Cholesterol
c) Fatty acids d) Apolipoprotein
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18. One of the following doesn’t belong to indirect bilirubin :
a) Unconjugated b) Water – insoluble
c) Cross blood brain barrier d) Secreted by the kidney
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19. CA marker used in monitoring the course of the disease in patients with invasive epithelial of ovarian cancer is
a) CA15-3 b) CA19-9
c) CA125 d) CA72-4
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20. The extent to which measurements agree with the true value of the quantity
being measured is known as

a) Acceptable limits b) Accuracy
c) Precision d) Reliability
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21. Hemoglobin electrophoresis has greatest diagnostic value in :

a) G6PHD deficiency & vit. K deficency b) Hemoglobinopathies
c) In cases of hemoglobin anemias d) Hereditary spherocytosis
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22. Which of the following antigens is the (backbone) from which all ABO antigens
are made?

a) Rh b) O
c) H d) Se
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23. PT is a clinical test used to assess

a) liver damage b) the extrinsic thrompoplastin system
c) potential vitamin K deficiency d) all of the above
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24. Which of the following blood product is the most likely to be contaminated by
bacteria

a) apheresis plateletes b) RBCs
c) fresh frozen plasma d) pooled platelets concentrate
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25. The results for blood group done by the reverse method are shown in the following table. The blood group is

Test cells A1 B
Patient serum ++++ ++++

a) AB b) O
c) A d) B
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26. In order to be called fresh frozen plasma (FFP), the plasma portion of whole blood must be placed at what temperature within what time limit?

a) less than -8 Co in less than 18 hr
b) less than -10 Co in less than 10 hr
c) less than -18 Co in less than 8 hr
d) less than -18 Co in less than 24 hr
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27. Prior to tissue transplantation , the first laboratory test done

a) ABO compatibility b)Immunoglobulins level
c) HLA compatibility d) Non of above
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28. Cryoprecipitate is prepared by

a) Fractionation of plasma b) Filtration of fresh frozen plasma
c) Controlled thawing of fresh frozen plasma d) Apheresis
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29. Streptolysin O is a bacterial toxin produced by strains of

a) Streptococcus pnemoniae b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c)Streptococcus veridans d) B+C
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30. The criteria for differentiation between viral & bacterial meningitis

a) High protein level b) Low glucose level
c) Type of cells d) All of the above
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31.
Selenite F Broth is an enrichment liquid medium for the isolation of
a) Streptococcus fecalis b) Salmonella
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa d) Nocardia
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32 For microbiological studies the most reliable urine sample is

a) First void b) Mid – stream
c) Last void d) Non of the above
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33 In Gram stain procedure, safranin is applied immediately

a) after the iodine b) after the crystal violet
c) after the decolorizer d) before the iodine
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34. Which of the following members of genus Candida is considered to be pathogenic for man?

a) C.tropicalis b) C.albicans
c) C.parakruzei d) C.guilliermondi
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35. Visceral leishmaniasis (kala Azar ) is caused by
a) L.tropica b) L.donovani

c) L.braziliensis d) L.mexicana
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36.
Hydatid cyst disease is caused by

a) Dipylidium caninum b) Taenia solium
c) Echinococcus granulosus d) Hymenolepis diminuta
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37. All of the following result are confirmatory of Diabetes Mellitus, except:

A- FBG > 140 mg/dl
B- 2hrs PPBG >200 mg/dl.
C- 1hr PPBG > 200 mg/dl.
D – Urine glcose > 250 mg/dl.
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38. Adult male with the following results: Hct = 30%, Reticulocytes production index is:

A – 1.5.
B – 2.5
C – 3.5
D – 4.5
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39. The hemogram parameter that can discriminate between IDA and B- thalassemia trait is :

A – MCV.
B – MCHC
C – RDW
D – MCH
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40. The liver function test that indicates (Bile Duct Obstruction) is:

A – High ALT
B – High Alkaline phosphatase.
C- Low Albumin.
D – High Indirect Bilirubin.
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41. The normal rang of Band Neutrophils in peripheral blood of adult male is :

A – 0 – 2%
B – 2 – 6 %
C – 6 – 8%
D – 40 – 70%
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42. The Key test to differentiate between enterobacteriaceae and pseudomonas is

A- The growth on Mackonky agar.
B – Oxidase
C - Glucose fermentation .
D – Lactose fermentation.
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43. The chemical substance that used in direct wet mount preparation for fungal identification is :

A – Normal Saline.
B – Alcohol 70 %.
C – KOH 15% .
D – H2O2 3%.
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44. The most sensitive marker for alcoholic liver disease is:

A – Alkaline phosphatase.
B – AST .
C – GGT .
D – LDH .
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45. The index of RBCs chromia is:

A – Hb .
B – MCV .
C – MCH .
D – MCHC .
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46. The parameter that reflects the transferring level is :

A – Serum Iron .
B – TIBC .
C – Ferritin .
D – UIBC .
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47. The following results : T3 : High , T4 High , TSH : High , indicate:

A – Primary hypothyroidism
B – Secondary hypothyroidism .
C – Primary hyperthyroidism .
D – Secondary hyperthyroidism .
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48. To prepare 10 ml 0.1 M (NaOH) from 0.25 M (NaOH), the volume of 0.25 M (NaOH ) that should be used is :

A – 1 ml
B – 2 ml
C – 4 ml
D – 6 ml
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49. The solution that used for manual platelets count is :

A – Ammonium Oxalate 1 %.
B – Trisoduim citrate 3.8%.
C – Acetic Acid 3%.
D – Sodium chloride 9%.
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50. The ASOT is raised in infection caused by:

A – Streptococcus sangins .
B – Streptococcus pneumoniae
C – Streptococcus pyogens
D – Streptococcus bovis .