بسم الله الرحمن الرحيم
وبه نستعين
اللهم وفقنا في امتحاننا وألهمنا فيه الصواب واجز عن هذا العمل بفضلك خير الجزاء لأهله وأصحابه


All of the following are sources of serum alkaline phosphatase except:
Liver
Placenta
Intestine

Brain
Feedback
The source of elevated alkaline phosphatase can be identified by electrophoresis of tissue specific isoenzymes at alkaline pH. Liver and bone are the most commonly identified isoenzymes
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A patient with atypical (reactive) lymphocytes in his peripheral blood smear should be tested for:
Herpes simplex virus infection
Epstein-Barr virus infection
Bacterial meningitis
Acute leukemia
Feedback
Epstein-Barr virus causes infectious mononucleosis, which is associated with atypical (reactive) lymphocytosis
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If greater than 50% lymphocytes were found on the peripheral blood smear of a 5 month old child you would suspect which of the following conditions:
Acute viral infection
Immune deficiency syndrome
Normal finding
Infectious hepatitis
Feedback
45 to 75% of the WBCs normally seen in the peripheral blood of infants are lymphocytes
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Match the type of media from the drop down box with the phrase listed below that best describes that media:

Contains certain factors that allow colonies of specific organisms to appear different than other colonies.

Media that contains agents that inhibit all but one specific organism.

Encourages the growth of specific types of organisms.
Feedback
Enrichment- Media which encourages the growth of specific types of organisms.
Differential- Media which contains certain factors that allow colonies of specific organisms to appear different than other colonies.
Selective- Media that contains agents that inhibit all but one specific organism.
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Expected life span of a neutrophil in the peripheral blood of an adult is:
3 days
1 day
2 hours
6 hours
Feedback
Neutrophil reside in the peripheral circulation for only a few hours ( approx. 2 hours) before entering the tissues and body cavities
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Bacteria which require oxygen for proper growth are termed:
Obligate anaerobes
Obligate aerobes
Facultative anaerobes
Microaeropiles
Feedback
Bacteria which require oxygen for proper growth are termed obligate aerobes. These organisms will only grow in the presence of oxygen, usually because their metabolic processes require it.
Which one of the following organisms do not typically stain with an acid-fast stain, or one of its variants:
Mycobacterium
Cryptosporidium
Actinomyces israelii
Nocardia
Feedback
Mycobacterium, Cryptosporidium, and Nocardia each stain with a form of acid-fast stain. The only choice listed that does not is Actinomyces israelii; therefore this is the correct answer.
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Which one of the following statements about TSH is true:
It is decreased in primary hyperthyroidism
It is decreased in primary hypothyroidism
A sensitive TSH assay is not a good screening test for thyroid function
Diffuse toxic goiter is associated with elevated TSH levels.
Feedback
A sensitive TSH assay is now considered the most cost effective method of screening for thyroid disorders. In the absence of pituitary and hypothalamic disease, TSH is decreased in hyperthroidism. and increased in hypothyroidism, with few exceptions. Diffuse toxic goiter is a cause of primary hyperthyroidism, and would be associated with decreased TSH.
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Match deficiency states with their respective vitamins.

Night blindness

Beriberi

Rickets

Scurvy
Feedback
Thiamine deficiency can cause Beriberi. Vitamin C deficiency can cause Scurvy. Vitamin A deficiency can cause night blindness. Vitamin D deficiency can cause rickets.
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Rh immune globulin therapy in postpartum women provides:
Long term protection
Antibody blocking
Passive protection
Active immunity
Feedback
Protection against alloimmunization is only for the recent pregnancy. There is of course no long term protection against the development of Rh antibodies if the patient is exposed again in the future.
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The classification of Du refers to:
Weakly reacting antigen forms of D
Weakly reacting anti-D antibodies
Rh(D) negative blood
Other subgroups of the Rh system (i.e. C, E)
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Which one of the following tests would be positive in the presence of Klebsiella:
Methyl red test
Coagulase test
CAMP test
Voges-Proskauer test
Feedback
A positive Voges-Proskauer test indicates the production of acetoin. It is converted to diacetyl, which is subsequently converted to a red complex in the presence of creatine and naphthol. An organism which is Voges-Proskauer positive is usually methyl-red negative and vice versa. Enterobacter, Klebsiella, Serratia and Hafnia are usually Voges-Proskauer positive.
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The INR (international normalized ratio) is calculated using the following formula: INR=(PT patient / PT normal) raised to the _____.
ISI

Feedback
The correct answer is the ISI, or the International Sensitivity Index. Manufacturers assign an ISI to each batch of thromboplastin reagent after comparing it to a "working reference" reagent preparation. This working reference has been calibrated against an internationally accepted standard reference preparations.
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The red/pink color of the colonies seen on this MacConkey agar plate is an indication of:

gram positive bacilli

non-lactose fermenters

gram negative bacilli
√√
lactose fermenters
Feedback
On MacConkey agar, lactose fermenters will produce a pink-colored pigment which is present in the image below. The gram stain status of these organisms cannot be established with the growth on the plate.
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Which of the following is most commonly associated with febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions:

Bacterial contamination of the blood

I.V. tubing contaminants

Reaction to plasma proteins
√√
Immune response to leukocytes

Feedback
The immune response in the recipient to donor leukocytes present in a blood product is most commonly associated with febrile, non-hemolytic transfusion reactions
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Match each virus with its appropriate nucleic acid content.

Paramyxovirus

Rhabdovirus

Poxvirus

Orthomyxovirus
Feedback
Paramyxovirus: RNA
Rhabdovirus: RNA
Poxvirus: DNA
Orthomyxovirus: RNA
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Hemophilia B or Christmas disease is the result of a hereditary deficiency in which coagulation factor:
Factor X

Factor VIII

Factor VII
√√
Factor IX
Feedback
Hemophilia B is a sex-linked recessive disorder characterized by deficiency of Factor IX. It is much less common that Factor VIII deficiency.
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TIBC (total iron-binding capacity) is an indirect measurement of which of the following:

Ferritin

Hemoglobin

Ceruloplasmin
√√
Transferrin
Feedback
Transferrin binds iron in the serum, and is proportional to total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). Transferrin(mg/dl) = 0.7 X TIBC (ug/dl)
Materials such as strong acids and bases are classified as:
√√
Corrosives

Chemical irritants

Flammable liquids

Carcinogens
Feedback
Corrosives are any liquid or solid that causes visible destruction or irreversible alteration in human skin tissue at the site of contact, or a liquid that has a severe corrosion rate on steel. The term “corrosive” includes all items commonly referred to as acids and most strong bases as well.
Sheep blood agar contains inhibitors to which of the following organisms:
√√
Haemophilus

Staphylococcus
Streptococcus

Listeria
Feedback
Sheep Blood Agar contains NADase which destroys the NAD (V factor) required by Haemophilus for growth.

Identify the cell in this illustration indicated by the arrow:

Metamyelocyte

Segmented neutrophil
√√
Lymphocyte

Monocyte
Feedback
Lymphocytes are generally the smallest normal WBC seen in the peripheral blood.

Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci are best characterized by which of the following:

Positive cAMP test

Optochin sensitivity

Bile esculin-hydrolysis
√√
Bacitracin sensitivity
Feedback
Group B streptococci are characterized by a positive cAMP test. Streptococcus pneumoniae is characterized by Optochin susceptibility Enterococci are positive by the bile-esculin test.
Match the tumor markers below with their corresponding sites of tumor origin.

CEA

PSA

Alpha-fetoprotein

Beta HCG
Feedback
PSA, or prostate specific antigen = Prostate
CEA, or Carcinoembryonic Antigen = Colon
beta hCG, or Human chorionic gonadotropin = Testicles
AFP, or Alpha-fetoprotein = Liver
All of the following are benefits of autologous donation except:

Reduces exposure to infectious agents
√√
Are always on hand in case of an unexpected emergency

Reduces demand for homologous blood

Eliminates sensitization to cellular blood components
Feedback
Autologous units must be drawn before they are needed, and must be readily available, therefore are generally not of use in emergencies.
Which of the following cells is the most common nucleated cell in normal adult bone marrow?

Myeloblast

Promyelocyte

Myelocyte
√√
Metamyelocyte
Feedback
Metamyelocytes constitute 15 - 20% of the nucleated cells in the normal bone marrow.
Myeloblasts constitute <3% of the nucleated cells; promyelocytes, <2% of the nucleated cells; ; and myelocytes constitute approximately 10% of the nucleated cells in a normal bone marrow.
Which of the following factors is not involved in the initial contact phase of the intrinsic pathway:

Factor XII

Fitzgerald Factor (high-molecular weight kininogen)

Fletcher Factor (prekallikrein)
√√
Factor X
Feedback
Fitzgerald and Fletcher Factors are required to complete activation of Factor XII during the contact phase.
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Which of the following conditions is associated with elevated serum uric acid levels:

Cushing's syndrome

Pancreatitis
Hyperthyroidism
√√
Gout
Feedback
Gout is a disease manifested by the deposition of crystalline uric acid in joints and soft tissues, with secondary inflammation and pain.
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Which of the following terms would be used to express the middle value in a series of results:

Mean
√√
Median

Mode

Standard error
Feedback
Median is the middle value in a series of numbers.

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Elevation in CSF total protein may be seen in all of the following conditions except:

Brain tumors

Bacterial meningitis
√√
Parkinson's disease

CVAcerebrovascular accedent
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The disk diffusion method of measuring antimicrobial sensitivity is also termed:

Tube dilution
√√
Kirby-Bauer

Gel diffusion

Tube titer
Feedback
Still widely used, the Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion technique is a rapid, inexpensive method of testing several antibiotics against a single isolate.
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Adult (normal) Hemoglobin is made up of the following composition:

>90% HbA, 5%HbF, 1% HbA2
√√
>95% HbA, <3.5% HbA2, <1-2% HbF

<90% HbA, 10% HbA2, 5% HbF

>90% HbA, 1% HbA2, 5-10% HbF
Feedback
Adult Hemoglobin is made up predominantly of HbA with only small amounts (< 1-2 %) of HbF (fetal hemoglobin).
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The lecethin to sphingomyelin ratio (L/S) is used to assess:

Fetal neurological development
√√
Fetal lung maturity

Fetal viability
Fetal liver development
Feedback
An L/S ratio above 2:1 indicates mature lung development, whereas a ratio below 1.5:1 indicates pulmonary immaturity
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Which of the following antibodies is predominantly associated with the secondary antibody response:
√√
IgG

IgA

IgM

IgD
Feedback
IgG - Secondary immune response IgM - Primary immune response
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Choose the term that describes the most prominent finding in this peripheral smear:

Rouleaux

Normal RBCs
√√
Anisocytosis
Feedback
Anisocytosis is a variation in the size of the red blood cells. This slide shows poikilocytosis, but anisocytosis is more prominent here.
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Match the correct components with their appropriate grouping:

Patient Red Cells

Reagent Red Cells

Reagent Antisera

Patient Serum
Feedback
In the forward grouping, patients red cells are combined with reagent antisera to detect antigens present on the patient's red cells.
In the reverse grouping, reagent red cells are combined with patient serum to detect antibodies circulating in the patient which can react with the reagent cell antigens.
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Which one of the following is not a system for incubation of anaerobic bacteria:
√√
Candle jar

Glove box anaerobic chamber

Anaerobic jar - gaspak
Anaerobic jar - evacuation replacement
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The normal range for urine pH is:

4.6 to 5.0
5.0 to 6.0

7.0 to 8.0
√√
All of the Above
Feedback
Normal urine pH varies from 4.6 to 8.0. After meals, urine becomes more alkaline due to gastric acid secretion (alkaline tide). At night due to shallow breathing, it becomes more acid. A high meat diet results in a more acid urine than a vegetarian diet, due to excretion of phosphates and sulfates
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The most frequent genotype among Rho (D) -negative persons is:

r' r

r' r"
√√
Rr
√√
r'r'
Feedback
rr is the most frequent genotype among Rh-negative individuals. The genotype symbolized a lack of the D (Rh) gene.
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Which of the following observations would best explain why a peripheral blood smear is exhibiting polychromasia:

Lower RBC count
√√
Increased reticulocyte count

Decreased hematocrit
Increased hemoglobin concentration
Feedback
Reticulocytes contain residual RNA which gives a bluish hue to RBCs when they are stained.

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The most frequent cause of bacterial meningitis in older adults is:
√√
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis

Haemophilus influenzae

Escherichia coli
Feedback
H. influenzae type b usually causes meningitis in infants and children. N. meningitidis usually causes meningitis in children and young adults. Streptococcus pneumoniae usually causes meningitis in adults. Other organisms can also cause bacterial meningitis, particularly Group B streptococci, and Listeria monocytogenes in infants and adults, and E. coli in infants.

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An increased number of these cells, when found upon microscopic examination of urine is termed:

Glycosuria
√√
Hematuria

Uremia

Normal urine
Feedback
Hematuria indicates the presence of red blood cells in the urine
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Which factor(s) are important to consider in the validation of test results on acutely intoxicated patients:
√√
Condition of the specimen
√√
Quantity of specimen available
√√
Timing of the specimen
√√
Type of specimen submitted
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False negative results may occur with both the direct and indirect antiglobulin tests as a result of all of the following except:

Undercentrifugation
Delay in adding antiglobulin reagent

Failure to adequately wash cells
√√
Agglutination of red cells prior to addition of antiglobulin reagent
Feedback
Agglutination of red cells prior to addition of antiglobulin reagent due to cold autoantibodies would give a "false" positive result, not a false negative. In this case, the washed red cell sample will agglutinate prior to addition of antiglobulin.
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To prepare 500 ml of a 5 % NaOH Solution how many grams of NaOH is required:
5 grams

10 grams
√√
25 grams

50 grams
Feedback
A percent solution is prepared by combining grams of material (i.e NaOH) per 100ml of solvent
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Which of the following would be the most characteristic finding in synovial fluid in a case of pseudogout:

Monosodium urate crystals
√√
Calcium pyrophosphate crystals

Macrophage infiltration
Mixed RBC/WBC infiltration
Feedback
Calcium pyrophosphate crystals are characteristic of pseudogout.
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Gram positive organisms
√√
resist acetone-alcohol decolorization

are always decolorized by acetone-alcohol

resist staining by crystal violet
readily stain with safranin in the Gram stain
Feedback
Gram positive organisms resist decolorization with acetone-alcohol. Gram negative organisms are decolorized, and subsequently stain with safranin.
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A normal hemoglobin molecule is comprised of the following:

Ferrous iron and four globin chains
√√
Four heme and four globin chains
Four heme and one globin chains

One heme and four globin chains
Feedback
A normal hemoglobin molecule consists of a tetramer with a molecular weight of 64,500 daltons. The constituent monomers are each composed of one heme molecule, and one polypeptide globin chain.
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Which one of the following does not directly regulate clinical laboratories:

HCFA
√√
CDC

CAP

JCAHO
Feedback
The centers of disease control (CDC) develops guidelines and public health policy. It does not directly regulate laboratories
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Match type of media on the right with media on the left:

Blood agar

Phenylethylalcohol agar

Selenite broth
Feedback
Blood agar- Nonselective media
Phenylethylalcohol agar- Selective media
Selenite broth- Enrichment media
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Which of the following cells are capable of producing antibodies and lymphokines:

Thrombocytes

Macrophages
√√
Lymphocytes

Granulocytes
Feedback
Lymphokines are biologically active molecules produced by lymphocytes in response to specific stimulants
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Which two of the following crystalline elements are found in acid urine:
√√
Cystine

Triple phosphate

Calcium phosphate
√√
Tyrosine
Feedback
Crystals and sediment found in acid urine include: cystine, leucine, calcium oxalate, sodium urate, sulfonamide, tyrosine, uric acid, and amorphous urates.
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Which of the following microscopic techniques is best suited for direct examination of the infectious agent of syphilis?

Light microscopy

Phase microscopy
√√
Darkfield microscopy

Electron microscopy
Feedback
Darkfield microscopy allows a lower limit of resolution than bright-field microscopy which helps the tiny spirochetes to be seen in patient samples. In darkfield microscpy, there is a dark background where directly transmitted light is excluded by a dark-field condenser allowing only scattered light to be focused on the specimen. With dark-field microscopy bacteria appear luminous against a dark background.
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The proper storage requirements for granulocyte concentrates is:

1 - 6 degrees Celsius, < 12 hours

- 20 degrees Celsius, 48 hours
1 - 6 degrees Celsius, < 24 hours
√√
20 - 24 degrees Celsius, < 24 hours
Feedback
Granulocytes may be stored at 20-24 degrees Celsius for up to 24 hours, but should be transfused as soon as possible.
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The RBCs seen in this illustration are indicative of:
√√
Normal cells

Microcytic cells

Macrocytic cells

Hypochromic cells
Feedback
Normal red cells are uniformly shaped and sized with 2-3mm of central pallor.
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Which of the following would be considered the definitive host of a parasite:

Humans

Insect vector

First host infected by the parasite
√√
Host in which mature parasites develop
Feedback
A parasite's definitive host is defined as the host in which sexual reproduction occurs.
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The Rh nomenclature which uses the letters DCE is found in which of the following genetic models:

Landsteiner

Wiener
√√
Fisher -Race
Rhesus
Feedback
Fisher and Race first proposed the existence of the three closely linked genes, and used the DCE terminology to describe their theory.
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HLA-A and HLA-B antigens can be detected using which of the following techniques?

Standard crossmatch
√√
Lymphocyte cytotoxicity

Immunofluorescent staining
Mixed lymphocyte cultures
Feedback
HLA-A and B antigens are detected by mixing the lymphocytes being tested with known HLA antisera and complement and then measuring the cell lysis (leukocytoxicity) that occurs.
The term used to describe patients with absence of Rh antigens is:

Rhd
√√
Rhnull

Rhmod

Rho
Feedback
Rhnull individuals have no Rh antigens. Rhmod individuals show reduced and varied reactivity with Rh antigens
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What does the YELLOW color on the NFPA diamond represent:
A health hazard

A fire hazard
√√
A reactivity hazard

A special section
Feedback
Red = Fire hazard Yellow = Reactivity hazard Blue = Health hazard White = Specific hazard
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Match clotting factor with its commonly associated Name:

Stable factor

Anti-hemophiliac factor

Christmas factor

Stuart factor
Feedback
Factor VII- Stable factor
Factor VIII- Anti-hemophiliac factor
Factor IX- Christmas factor
Factor X- Stuart factor
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Which of the following is not a structural component of a typical virion:

Nucleoprotein core

Capsid ****l

Lipid envelope
√√
Icosahedral symmetry
Feedback
An intact viral particle typically consists of a nucleoprotein core, capsomeres making up the capsid, and a lipid envelope (absent in some viruses). The symmetry of a virus is usually icosahedral, or helical.
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Fresh frozen plasma should be used for which of the following:
Platelet replacement
√√
Coagulation deficiencies

Volume replacement

Albumin replacement
Feedback
FFP, or fresh frozen plasma, should be used to treat coagulation defiencies- though the levels of factors V and VIII are usually decreased in FFP units. FFP is not used for platelet replacement as there are virtually no platelets in FFP units. FFP should never be used as a volume expander, unless traumatic bleeding is taking place. Finally, FFP is not used to replace albumin in recipients.
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Which one of the following statements about the Hepatitis B vaccine is correct?

It is not effective in the majority of cases.
√√
It is safe, with minimal side effects.

Your employer may charge you a reasonable fee to provide it.

It consists of a single shot given in the buttocks.
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Serum calcitonin is typically elevated in which of the following conditions:
√√
Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

Hyperthyroidism

Glioblastoma
Adrenal adenoma
00000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000 0000000000000000
00000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000 0000000000000000
Feedback
Serum calcitonin is normally produced by the C cells of the thyroid. It functions to reduce serum calcium by inhibiting release of calcium from bone. It is a peptide with a molecular weight of 3400, and has a half life of approximately 12 minutes. It is characteristically elevated in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. Since medullary carcinoma often occurs as an autosomal disorder, family members of patients with this condition should be screened for serum calcitonin.
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The normal range for urine pH is:

4.6 to 5.0

5.0 to 6.0

7.0 to 8.0
√√
All of the Above
Feedback
Normal urine pH varies from 4.6 to 8.0. After meals, urine becomes more alkaline due to gastric acid secretion (alkaline tide). At night due to shallow breathing, it becomes more acid. A high meat diet results in a more acid urine than a vegetarian diet, due to excretion of phosphates and sulfates.
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Which of the following forms of calcium is biologically active:

Protein-bound calcium

Non-ionized calcium
Calcium carbonate
√√
Free ionized calcium
Feedback
Ionized calcium is important in physiologic functions such as coagulation and neuromuscular conductivity.
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The normal range for urine pH is:
√√
4.6 to 8.0

5.0 to 6.0

7.0 to 8.0

none of the above
Feedback
Depending on the person's acid-base status, the pH of urine may range from 4.5 to 8. The kidneys maintain normal acid-base balance primarily through the reabsorption of sodium and the tubular secretion of hydrogen and ammonium ions. Urine becomes increasingly acidic as the amount of sodium and excess acid retained by the body increases. Alkaline urine, usually containing bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer, is normally excreted when there is an excess of base or alkali in the body. Secretion of an acid or alkaline urine by the kidneys is one of the most important mechanisms the body uses to maintain a constant body pH.
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Which of the following factors does not affect the result of the PTT assay?
Factor X

Factor IX

Factor VIII
√√
Factor VII
Feedback
The PTT is prolonged secondary to deficiency of factors of the intrinsic pathway, specifically: prekallekrein, high-molecular-weight kininogen, Factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, and I.
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Which of these is arranged from least mature to most mature:

Lymphoblast, Lymphocyte, Prolymphocyte, Stem Cell
√√
Stem Cell, Lymphoblast, Prolymphocyte, Lymphocyte

Stem Cell, Lymphoblast, Lymphocyte, Prolymphocyte

Lymphocyte, Prolymphocyte, Lympoblast, Stem Cell
Feedback
The appropriate order of the lymphocyte cell line from least mature to most mature is: Stem Cell, Lymphoblast, Prolymphocyte, Lymphocyte.
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DR antigens are found in which of the following systems:

Kell system
√√
HLA system

Duffy system

ABO system
Feedback
HLA-DR is a MHC class II(major histocompatibility complex) surface receptor on the cellular surface which is encoded by the human leukocyte antigen complex, or HLA.
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Which of the following organisms is not an aerobic organism:

Francisella
√√
Bacteroides
Pseudomonas

Neisseria
Feedback
Francisella tularensis is an aerobic gram-negative coccobaccillary organism requiring cystine or cysteine to grow. It causes tuleremia, which can manifest as cutaneous papules and ulcers, conjunctivitis, fever, myalgias, and lymphadenopathy. It can be diagnosed by culture on appropriate media, or serology. Bacteroides fragilis is an anaerobic gram-negative rod which is resistant to most penicillins. It can cause a variety of life threatening infections. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a stictly aerobic gram-negative motile bacillus; it causes a variety of infections especially among patients who are immunocompromised for a variety of reasons, and it causes wound infections in moist air.
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The red cells indicated by the arrows in this image exhibit which of the following abnormal erythrocyte shapes?

Acanthocytes

Schistocytes

Spherocytes
√√
Stomatocytes
Feedback
Stomatocytes have a slit like appearance in the area of central pallor - many chemical agents may cause this abnormality.
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Which two of the following organisms are gram positive?
Pasteurella
√√
Erysipelothrix

Aeromonas
√√
Lactococcus
Feedback
Erysipelothrix, a genus of bacteria containing a single species, are short gram-positive rods. Lactococcus, a microbe formerly included in the genus Strep Group N1, are gram-positive, catalase negative, non-motile cocci that are found singly, in pairs, or in chains. Pasteurella and Aeromonas are both gram-negative microbes.
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The iodine prep is most helpful to identify which of the following parasitic stages:

Larvae

Eggs
√√
Cysts
Trophozoites
Feedback
Trophozoites are not generally motile in iodine stained wet preps
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Which of the following conditions is most frequently associated with anti-I:
The correct answer is highlighted below
√√
Cold agglutinin disease
Hemolytic transfusion reaction

Delayed transfusion reaction

Infectious mononucleosis
Feedback
Autoanti-I is an insignificant IgM cold agglutinin found in many individuals. It can rarely be the cause of cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia. It is also seen in many patients with Mycoplasma Pneumoniae infection. Alloanti-I is very rare, since there are so few I-negative adults.
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What percentage of glycerol is generally used when freezing red cells of rare phenotypes:
70 %
√√
40 %

10 %

5 %

Feedback
Cryopreservation of red cells is expensive, and of limited value for routine use since their ****f life after thawing is only 24 hours. It is invaluable for maintaining an inventory of rare blood phenotypes.
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Match each virus with its appropriate nucleic acid content:

Togavirus

Coronavirus

Herpesvirus

Adenovirus
Feedback
Togavirus: RNA
Coronavirus: RNA
Herpesvirus: DNA
Adenovirus: DNA
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Which of the following organisms is most likely to be associated with gas gangrene:

Clostridia histolyticum

Pseudomonas aeruginosa
√√
Clostridium perfringens

Escherichia coli
Feedback
Clostridium perfringens is most likely to be associated with gas gangrene. Clostridium gas gangrene is a form of lethal necrotizing soft tissue infection of skeletal muscle caused by the toxins and gas produced by this organism
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Which one of the following statements about urea is false:
It accounts for 75% of nonprotein nitrogen excreted

It is elevated in a variety of glomerular, tubular, interstitial, and vascular renal diseases
√√
It is decreased in dehydration

The reference range for normal individuals is 7 to 18 mg/dl when expressed as blood urea nitrogen
Feedback
Urea is actually increased during bouts of dehydration.
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Which of the following descriptions best describes the term absolute value as it would relate to differential counts.

Relative % of each cell type
√√
Relative % of each cell type X total white cell count

Relative % of each cell type divided by total white count
Specific number of each cell type divided by total white count
Feedback
The absolute cell counts are measurements calculated by multiplying the relative cell percentages by the total white blood cell count.
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Which one of the following statements about E.coli O157:H7 is false:

It has been reported in contaminated unpasteurized milk, unpasteurized apple juice, and undercooked hamburger
It can cause hemolytic-uremic syndrome in children

It causes hemorrhagic diarrhea, abdominal pain, and other symptoms
√√
It ferments sorbitol rapidly
Feedback
E. coli O157:H7 is sorbitol negative. It is screened for in a stool specimen using sorbitol McConkey agar, where it produces colorless colonies, indicating that it is not fermenting sorbitol. E. coli O157:H7 is also most often beta-glucuronidase negative, and usually produces an enterohemolysin which leaves a small zone of hemolysis surrounding colonies on a blood agar plate of washed sheep red cells with calcium chloride. Sorbitol negative E. coli should be serotyped to determine if they are the O157:H7 serotype.
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Which of the following would be considered most significant as it relates to serological testing:

Presence of an antibody titer is generally diagnostic
√√
Rise of antibody titers is diagnostic

Concentration of antibody is diagnostic
Cross reactivity is not significant
Feedback
Serological diagnosis of active of recent infection generally requires the demonstration of IgM antibody, or the demonstration of a fourfold rise in the titer of specific IgG antibody.
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Which of the following infectious agents represent the greatest risk to the laboratory worker:

AIDS

Meningitis
√√
Hepatitis

Influenza
Feedback
While AIDS is a more serious health threat, hepatitis is far more prevalent, and therefore represents a greater overall risk.
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The most common cause of severe life threatening hemolytic transfusion reactions is:

Anti-D

Anti-M
√√
Anti-A, Anti-B, Anti-A, B

Anti-Fya
Feedback
Incompatiblity involving the ABO blood group system can cause the most sever type of transfusion reaction.
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The predominant cells seen in this CSF are suggestive of:

Normal cytocentrifuged smear
√√
Viral meningitis
Bacterial meningitis

Alzheimer's disease
Feedback
Almost exclusively mononuclear cells are seen, suggestive of viral meningitis.
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CSF lymphocytosis is associated with all of the following except:
√√
Cerebral abscess

Viral meningitis

Chronic fungal meningitis

Chronic tuberculous meningitis
Feedback
There are many causes of CSF lymphocytosis.
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A zinc deficiency in the elderly is often caused by:
√√
Decreased intake and absorption

Decreased intake and excretion

Increased intake and excretion
Increased excretion and decreased absorption
Feedback
Some elderly individuals can have poor dietary habits which can lead to decreased nutrient absorption, including zinc.
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Which of the following will give the best overall picture of a patient's iron stores:

Albumin

Transferrin

Haptoglobin

Ferritin
Feedback
The concentration of circulating ferritin is proportional to the size of iron stores.
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The capsular material used to identify capsular subtypes of Pneumococci consists of:

Proteins
√√
Polysaccharides

Lipids

Lipoproteins
Feedback
The Quelling reaction can be used to identify capsular subtypes of pneumococci. Reaction of anticapsular antibody with pneumococcal organisms causes their carbohydrate capsule to swell and alters its refractility.
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A simple check which can be employed to verify that hemoglobin and hematocrit values match would be:

Hematocrit X 3 = hemoglobin
√√
Hemoglobin X 3 = hematocrit

Hemoglobin / hematocrit = 3
Hemoglobin + hematocrit = 3
Feedback
The hematocrit is equal to approximately 3 times the hemoglobin level.
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Which of the following blood groups is most frequently associated with cold agglutinins:

Kell

Kidd
Duffy
√√
P
Feedback
Kell, Kidd, and Duffy are usually warm reacting IgG antibodies. The most common P system antibody is anti-P1, which is a frequently naturally occurring low titer IgM antibody, seen in most P2 individuals.
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Which of the following enzymes is the most sensitive indicator of liver damage associated with alcohol ingestion:
√√
GGT

ALT

AST

LDH
Feedback
GGT elevations precede those of other liver enzymes in cases of chronic ingestion of drugs or alcohol.
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The impedance principle shown in this illustration is best described by the following statement:
Blood cells and platelets are counted by the number of the times they scatter light as they pass in front of a mirror.

Blood cells and platelets are counted utilizing a type of defraction gradient technique.

Blood cells and platelets are counted by measuring the drop in transmitted light as they pass through a series of apertures.
√√
Blood cells or other particles are counted and sized based on changes in electrical resistance as they pass between two electrodes.
Feedback
The impedance principle has been the basis for most blood cell counters for more than 25 years.
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Which of the following Rh antigens is found the highest frequency in the Caucasian population:
The correct answer is highlighted below

C

E
C
√√
E
Feedback
The e antigen is present in 98% of the Caucasian population.
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Factor V is primarily involved in:

Extrinsic pathway only

Neither pathway

Fibrinolysis
√√
Both pathways
Feedback
Activated Factor V and activated Factor X are required to convert prothrombin (Factor II) to Thrombin.
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The abnormal RBCs shape seen in this illustration is:
√√
Elliptocytes

Thorn cell

Sickle cell

Target cell
Feedback
Elliptocytes are seen in large numbers in hereditary elliptocytosis. They are also seen in lesser numbers in iron deficiency anemia, and other conditions.
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Which of the following options gives in order from most to least important, the factors you would use to select blood for a transfusion:

Major Crossmatch Compatibility, ABO Type Specific Blood, Antigen Negative Blood for Patient with antibody reacting only at room temperature
√√
ABO Type Specific Blood, Major Crossmatch Compatibility, Antigen Negative Blood for Patient with antibody reacting only at room temperature
Antigen Negative Blood for Patient with antibody reacting only at room temperature, Major Crossmatch Compatibility, ABO Type Specific Blood
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Hemoglobin (g/100ml) x 10 / RBC count (millions/mm3) is the formula for calculating:

MCHC
MCV
√√
MCH

RDW
Feedback
MCH is the average weight of hemoglobin in the average red blood cell. The value is expressed in picograms (10-12 grams).
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Aplastic anemia may be caused by all of the following except:
Infections

Chemical agent
√√
Enzyme deficiencies

Ionizing radiation
Feedback
Enzyme deficiencies are usually associated with hemolytic anemias.
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Identify the urine sediment elements shown by the arrow:

Cholesterol crystals

Uric acid crystals

Amorphous urate crystals
√√
Cystine crystals
Feedback
Cystine crystals are characteristically seen as colorless hexagonal plates in acid urine. They may be confused with hexagonal uric acid crystals. They can be differentiated from uric acid by their solubility in dilute hydrochloric acid versus crystalline uric acid, which is not soluble in dilute hydrochloric acid. The cyanide-nitroprusside test can be used to confirm the presence of cystine in urine. Cystine crystals are not present in normal urine.
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Q1: The colonies of Salmonella Typhi appeared on the plate:
A) Colorless with black centre
B) --------------------------------
C) -------------------------------
Q2: One of these is Oxidase Positive:
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) ------------------------------
C) ------------------------------
Q3: Neisseria meningitis is:
A) Gram –ve Cocci
B) -------------------
C) ------------------
Q4: To differentiate between Staphylococcus and Streptococcus use:
A) Catalyze
B) ----------
C) ----------
Q5: Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus):
A) Inhibited by bacitracin
B) Against antibody A
C) --------------------------
Q6: Error of Gram stain is:
A) Crystal violet more than 1min
B) Safranin 3min
C) Over decolorizing
Q7: MacConkey agar added crystal violet act as:
A) Indicator
B) Growth factor
C) Inhibit Enterococcus Sp
Q8: Indian Ink used to stain:
A) M. tuberculosis
B) ------------------
C) -----------------
Q9: Measles (rubeola) is:
A) Koplik's spots marker
B) Caused by paramyxovirus of the genus Morbillivirus
C) Characteristic maculopapular, erythematous
D) Laboratory diagnosis Positive measles IgM
E) Children salivary measles specific IgA
F) Hyperplastic lymph nodes (Warthin-Finkeldey cell,)
G) All othem are correct
Q10: Gram +ve with branch:
A) M. tuberculosis
B) Actinomysis israli
C) ----------------------
Q11: Skin affected with Pus:
A) M. tuberculosis
B) M. leprosy
C) ------------------

Q12: Small RNA virus is:
A) Adenovirus
B) Retinavirus
C) -------------
Q13: Latex virus:
A) Affinity of latex for viral antibody
B) Antigen antibody complex
C) --------------------------------------
D) -------------------------------------
Q14: Gram +ve Cocci in cluster will be use median sensitive (inhibited):
A) Penicillin G
B) Erythromycin
C) Vancomycin
D) Methicillin
E) Oxacillin
F) ---------------

Section 3: Histology & Cytology

Q1: Lymph node with central germ end is:
A) Deep cortex lymph node
B) Medulla of lymph node
C) Red pulp of spleen
D) White pulp of spleen
Q2: Satisfactory of Sputum is:
A) Present of Carbon laden
B) Few leukocytes
C) Mucoid fibre
D) Few squamous cell
E) All of the above
Q3: Satisfactory of FNA is:
A) Needle is in the centre of tumor
B) Needle penetrate the tumor
C) Needle is not close to the tumor
D) ------------------------------------
Q4: Villa papilloma is affect:
A) Skin
B) Lip
C) Ureter
D) Vagina
Q5: Causes of Necrosis is:
A) Chemical Toxins
B) Heat
C) --------------------
D) --------------------
Q6: One of these is Cytology used:
A) 95 % Ethanol
B) 70 % Alcohol
C) Methanol
D) ---------------


Section 4: Hematology & Immunohematology
Q1: To differentiate between Hemoglobin C disease and trait by:
A) Electrophoresis
B) Ruler
C) Meter
D) ------------------
Q2: Many of Target Cells seen in:
A) Hb C disease
B) Aplastic Anemia
C) Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia
D) -------------------------------------
Q3: Megakaryocyte – Low Platelets seen in:
A) Aplastic Anemia
B) Pernicious Anemia
C) Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic
D) ---------------------------------
Q4: PCV (HCT) / RBC count is:
A) MCV
B) MCH
C) MCHC
D) --------
Q5: 107 fL Hb with normal VitB12 and Folate is:
A) Iron Deficiency Anemia
B) Aplastic Anemia
C) VitB12 deficiency
Q6: Prothrompin Time (PT) is affected by:
A) Fibrenogen I
B) Factor VIII
C) Factor X
D) ---------------
Q7: Reject the sample if it:
A) Hemolysis
B) Not written Correct request form
C) --------------
D) ------------
Q8: To Transfer Blood not use:
A) Heparin
B) CIP
C) CIA
D) 1% sodium
Q9: Blood Donor + Patient RBC indicate:
A) Cross-match
B) --------------
C) -------------

Section 5: Parasitology
Q1: Giardia lablia is the same of (watery stool-diarrhea):
A) Shigella
B) Salmonella
C) ECT
D) V. Cholera
a full term baby boy brought by his mother weighing 3.8 kg. developed jaundice at 2nd day of life .. coomb's test –ve ,Hb : 18 ,billrubin : 18.9 & indirect : 18.4
O/E : baby was healthy and feeding well .. the most likely diagnosis is :


a- physiological jaundice
b- ABO incompatibility
c- breast milk jaundice
d- undiscovered neonatal sepsis



17- a 62 yrs. old female pt. a known case of osteoporosis & on 1 alpha + Ca supplement .. her lab works shows normal level of PO4, Ca & ALP … her X-ray shows osteopenia with SD = -3.5 …. The best action is to :


a- continue on same medications
b- start estrogen
c- start estrogen & progesterone
d-add alevdonate ( bisthmus phosphate)




18- a 38 yrs old female … came to you at your office and her pap smear report was unsatisfactory for evaluation .. the best action is :


a- consider it normal & D/C the pt.
b- Repeat it immediately
c- Repeat it as soon as possible
d- Repeat it after 6 months if considered low risk
e- Repeat it after 1 year if no risk



19- a 17 yrs. old school boy was playing foot ball and he was kicked in his Rt. eye .. few hours later he started to complain of : double vision & echymoses around the eye .. the most likely Dx. Is :


a- cellulites
b- orbital bone fracture
c- global eye ball rupture
e- subconguctival hemorrhage



20- a 35 yrs old female pt. C/O : acute inflammation and pain in her Lt. eye since 2 days .. she gave Hx of visual blurring and use of contact lens as well … O/E : fluorescence stain shows dentritic ulcer at the center of the cornea .. the most likely diagnosis is :


a- corneal abrasion
b- herpetic central ulcer
c- central lens stress ulcer
d- acute episcleritis
e- acute angle closure glaucoma




21- a 65 yrs old lady came to your clinic with Hx of 5 days insomnia and crying ( since her husband died ) the best Tx. For her is :


a- lorazipam
b- floxitein
c- chlorpromazine
d- haloperidol



22- a 25 yrs old Saudi man presented with Hx of mild icterus , otherwise ok .. hepatitis screen : HBsAg +ve , HBeAg +ve , anti HBc Ag +ve (this should be core anti body, because core antigen doesn’t leave hepatocyte to the blood "prof. Yasawi" ) , the diagnosis :


a- acute hepatitis B
b- convalescent stage of hep. B
c- recovery with seroconversion Hep . B
d- Hep B carrier
e- chronic active Hep. B



23- 25 yrs. old man presented to ur clinic with one month HX of aching pain in the elbow , radiates down to the lateral forearm ..the pt. frequently plays squash … O/E:
Pain increases with dorsiflexion of the wrist performed under resistance specially with elbow extended … the most likely diagnosis :


a- olecranon stress fracture
b- olecranon bursitis
c- lateral tennis elbow
e- radial tunnel syndrome
e- ligament sprain


- 24-8 wk Primigravida came to you with nausea & vomiting choose the statement that guide you to hyperemmesis gravidarm :
a- ketonia
b- ECG evidence of hypokalemia
c- Metabolic acidosis
d- Elevated liver enzyme
e- Jaundice




- 25-Injury of the hand leads to median nerve injury:
a- claw hand
b- wrist drop
c- sensory defect only


- 26-60 year old male was refer to you after stabilization investigation show
Hgb 8,5 g/l , hect. 64% , RBC 7.8 , WBC 15.3
& Plt. 570 Diagnosis :
a- iron def. Anemia
b- Hgb pathy
c- CLL
d- 2ry polycythemia
e- Polycythemia rubra Vera


- 27-Pregnant women G4P3+1 on GA 10 wk came to you with IUCD inserted & the string is out from O.S what is the most important measure :
a- leave the IUCD & give A.B
b- leave the IUCD & send to Ob/ Gynaecologist to remove
c- leave the IUCD
d- do laparoscopy to see if there is ectopic preg.
e- Reassurance the pt


- 28-17 year old male while play football felt on his knee “tern over “ what do think the injury happened


a- medial meniscus lig,
b- Lateral meniscus lig.
c- Medial collateral lig.
d- Lat. collateral lig.
e- Antr. Crussate lig.



- 29-For health education programme to be effective all true except :
-
a- Human behaviour should be well understood.
b- Procedures used include illustration & picture.
c- Doctors should be the only educator.
d- Community member should be involved in early stage.
e- ………….
__________________


- 30-Placenta previa excludes :
a- Pain less vaginal bleeding
b- Tone increased of uterus
c- Lower segmental abnormality
d- Early 3rd trimester

- 31-Pregnancy test +ve after :

a- one day post coital
b- 10 day after loss menstrual cycle ??
c- One wk after loss menstrual cycle


- 32-45 year old female complaining of itching in genitalia for certain period, a febrile, -ve PMH, living happily with here husband since 20 year ago on examination no abdominal tenderness , erythema on lower vagina , mild Gray discharge no hx of UTI . pyleonephritis
Most probable diagnosis:

a- Vaginitis
b- Cystitis
c- CA of vagina
d- Urithritis ( non gonococal )


- 33-20 year lady come to ER with Hx of Rt sever lower abdominal pain with Hx of amenorrhea for about 6 wk the most serious diagnosis of your deff. Diagnosis could reach by:

a- CBC
b- ESR
c- U/S of the pelvis
d- Plain X-ray
e- Vaginal swab for C/S


- 34-Pt had arthritis in tow large joint & pansystolic murmur ( carditis )
Hx of URTI the most important next step:

a- ESR
b- ASO titre
c- Blood culture

- 35-35 years prime 16 wk gestation PMH coming for her 1st cheek up she is excited about her pregnancy no hx of any previous disease.
Her B/P after since rest 160/100 after one wk her B/P is 154/96
Most likely diagnosis :

a- Pre eclempsia
b- Chronic HTN
c- Lable HTN
d- Chronic HPT with superimposed pre eclampsia
e- Transit HPT??



- 36-women complain of non fluctuated tender cyst for the vulva . came pain in coitus & walking , diagnosed Bartholin cyst . what is the ttt:

a- incision & drainage
b- refer to the surgery to excision (after you reassure her)
c- reassurance the pt
d- give AB


37- 42years old male presented with history of sudden appearance of rash – maculopapular rash – including the sole,& the palm, the most likely diagnosis is :

a- syphilis
b- erethyma nodosum
c- erythema marginatum
d- pitryasis rocae
e- drug induced


38- A mother calls you about her 8 years old son , known case of DM-1 fell comatose . she is not sure if he took the night 7 morning dose of insulin. You will advice her to :

a- bring the child immediately to the ER
b- call an ambulance
c- give him IV glucagons
d- give him IV insulin
e- give him drink contains sugar


39- years old lady on …….., feels dizzy on standing, resolves after 10-15 minutes on sitting, decrease on standing, most likely she is having :

a- orthostatic hypotension
b-

40- what is the most appropriate treatment for the above patient :

a- antiemetic
b- antihistamine
c- change the antidepressant to SSRI
d- thiazide diuretics
e- audiometry


41- 23 years old lady with one month history of nasal discharge & nasal obstruction, she complained of pain on the face, throbbing in nature , referred to the supraorbital area, worsen by head movement, walking,& stopping. On - -- --------- examination , tender antrum with failure of transillumination ( not clear ), the most likely the diagnosis is:

a- frontal sinusitis (we can NOT trannsiiluminate it)
b- maxillary sinusitis
c- dental abscess
d- chronic atrophic rhinitis
e- chronic sinusitis
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------




TAP can pass the peptide to bind with:
a)MHC-І
b)MHC-П
None of abovec)
d)All above
CR .present in all expect:
a)MQ
b)Nutrophil
c)RBC
d)T-cell
e)D.N
Colicins inhibit growth of:
a)Normal flora
b)Pathogenic bacteria
c)Non-pathogenic bacteria
d)All of the above
e)comment
MHCI peptide should be:
a)8- 11 a.a endogenous
b)12-25 a.a endogenus
c)12-25 a.a exogenous
Cytokines Secrete from MC except :
a)IL-12
b)IL-13
c)IL-10
d)TNF-α
Resting B-cell express:
a)MHC-І
b)MHC-П
c)B7
d)A.B
e)B.C
Cystic fibrosis is char characterized by hypertonic mucous which inhibit the:
a)cercropin
b)catherizin
c)brevenin
d)collectin
PR-39 stimulate the formation of :
a)syndecans.
which of the following receptor inhibit immunity:-
a)Vitronectin R.
b)CD14
c)TLR
d)B&C
e)A&C.
INF-γ IS SECREYED FROM:
A)TCELL & N.K
B)T-CELL
C)B-CELL
CR1 EXPRESS ON:
a)RBC
b)MQ
c)NEUTROPHIL
d)D.N
e)ALL OF THE ABOVE




1- For health education programs to be successful all are true except :


a- human behavior must be well understood
b- Information should be from cultural background
c- Doctors are only the health educators
d- Methods include pictures and videos (mass media)
e- Involve society members at early stage



2- a 29 yrs. Old female has a breast lump in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast , firm , 2 cm. in size but no L.N involvement … what is the most likely diagnosis ?
a- fibroadenoma



3- What is the management for the above patient?
a- mammogram (true if patient > 35 years)
b- excisional biopsy
c- FNA
d- breast US
e- follow up in 6 months






4- a 27 yrs. old female C/O abdominal pain initially periumbilical then moved to Rt. Lower quadrant … she was C/O anorexia,nausea and vomiting as well ..
O/E : temp.38c , cough , tenderness in Rt lower quadrant but no rebound tenderness.
Investigations : slight elevation of WBC's otherwise insignificant ..
The best way of management is:
a- go to home and come after 24 hours
b- admission and observation
c- further lab investigations
d- start wide spectrum antibiotic
e- paracetamol



5- what is the most likely diagnosis for the above patient ?


a- mesenteric lymph adenitits
b- acute appendicitis
c- peptic ulcer



6- a 24 yrs old pt. came for check up after a promiscuous relation 1 month ago .. he was clinically unremarkable, VDRL : 1/128 … he was allergic 2 penicillin other line of management is :
a- ampicillin
b- amoxicillin
c- trimethoprim
d- doxycyclin




7- a 24 years old female pt. C/O : gray – greenish discharge , itching .. microscopic examination of discharge showed : flagellated organism … most likely diagnosis is :
a- trichomoniasis ( trichomonas vaganalis )



8- a 43 yrs. old female pt. presented to ER with H/O : paralysis of both lower limbs and parasthesia in both upper limbs since 2 hours ago .. she was seen lying on stretcher & unable to move her lower limbs (neurologist was called but he couldn't relate her clinical findings 2 any medical disease !!! ) when history was taken , she was beaten by her husband … the most likely diagnosis is :
a- complicated anxiety disorde
b- somatization disorder
c- conversion disorder
d- psychogenic paralysis
e- hypochondriasis


9- the best treatment for the previous case is :


a- benzodiazepines
b- phenothiazine
c- monoamine oxidase inhibitor
d- selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
e- supportive psychotherapy



10- a 58 yrs. old male pt. came with HX of fever, cough with purulent foul smelling sputum and CXR showed : fluid filled cavity … the most likely diagnosis is :
a- abscess
b- TB
c- bronchieactesis


11- a 28 yrs. old lady , C/O: chest pain, breathlessness and feeling that she'll die soon .. O/E : just slight tachycardia .. otherwise unremarkable .. the most likely diagnosis is:
a- panic disorder




12- a patient ( known case of DM ) presented to u with diabetic foot ( infection) the antibiotic combination is :
a- ciprofloxacin & metronedazole



13- a young pregnant lady (Primigravida) , 32 weeks of gestation came to you C/O : lower limbs swelling for two weeks duration .. she went to another hospital and she was prescribed ( thiazide & loop diuretic ) .. O/E : BP : 120/70 , mild edema , urine dipstick : -ve and otherwise normal…. The best action is :
a- continue thiazide & stop loop diuretic
b- cont. loop diuretic & stop thiazide
c- stop both
d- continue both and add potassium sparing diuretic
e- cont. both & add potassium supplement



14- a 17 yrs. old football player gave HX of Lt. knee giving off .. the most likely diagnosis is :
a- Lat. Menisceal injury
b- medial menisceal injury
c- lateral collateral ligament
d- medial collateral ligament
e ant. Curciate ligament


15- a 10 yrs. old boy presented to clinic with 3 weeks HX of limping that worsen in the morning .. this suggests which of the following :
a- septic arthritis
b-leg calve parthes disease
c- RA
d- a tumor
e- slipped capital femoral epiphysis

مشكور اخ سراج والف مبروووك على النجاح عقبال الوظيفة
بس ما عرفت هسي وين الاسئلة حقتك منهم ؟؟

انت ذاكرها كلها لان الامتحانات عباره عن نماذج كثييره وركز على المايكروبايولوجي
الاسئله هذي معايا الاجوبه حقتها ومعايا اسئله ثانيه بس ماهي راضيه تتحمل
Gr+ve cocci and bacilli
Gr-ve [B]cocci [/B nd bacillc nd vebrio]

السلام عليكم
الف مبروك النجاح ويعطيك العافية
بس حبيت أسأل الاسئله أغلبها جات من النماذج اللي في المنتدى والا الكتب؟؟؟
و كتاب مونيكا هذا ؤين أحصله؟؟

وعليكم السلام ... الله يبارك فيك عقبالك
بالنسبه لكتاب مونيكا تلاقيه في المكتبات الجامعيه غالبا في الكليات الطبيه اما بالنسبه للاسئله انا ذاكرت من الاسئله الي في المنتدى بس تبع اخصائي مش فني لان معظم الاسئله هنا للفنيين وارسلي ايميلك عشان اعطيك الاسئله الي موجودة عندي بس لاتعتمد عليها بعد ماتخلص مذاكره ( مايكرو = هيماتولوجي = بارا= كيميا= بنك الدم ) ابداء ذاكر الاسئله وركز على المايكور
والله يوفقك

يااخ سراج الاسئله اللي واضعاها كم جاك منها انا امتحاني بعد 25 يوم ان شاءالله بليز وضحيلي ومبروك النجاح وعقبال الوظيفه

lasilki@hotmail.com


هذا ايميلي اذا ممكن ترسلي الاسئلة الي عندك

شاكر لك عزيزي والف مبروك


اتمنى لك التوفيق

السلام عليكم والله ياليت ياخوي ترسل لي الاسئله على إاميلي لأن إختباري بعد أسبوعين
Mr-Mr-11@hotmail.com

السلام عليكم ورحمه الله وبركاته جزاك الله خيرا ,بس ممكن اعرف ايش تخصصك(كيميا حيوي او ميكرو)
انا تخصص كيميا حيويه ومش عارفه اذاكر فى ايه بالظبط

بالنسبه للاخصائي كم عدد الاسأله وكم المجموع المفروض نجيبه
لان الفنى 70 سؤال يجاوبون اتوقع على 28 سؤال يكونون ناجحين

السلام عليكم......الف مبروك على النجاح.....ولكن عندي سؤال عن امتحان الاخصائي التحاليل كيف يتم وهل هو بعد الماستر؟وماهي الكليات التي تعتمدها او تمنح هذه الدرجة؟

مبرك اخ سراج عالنجاح..
بالنسبة للاسئله اللي حضرتك عرضتها في المنتدى واللي ماعرضتها , ممكن ترسلي هيا ع الايميل
وشكرا

شكراااااااااااااااااا لك والف مبرووووووك عقبال الماستر

جـــــــــــــــــزااااكــــ الله خير اسئله اساسيه في المختبرات