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ارجو التثبيت اسئلة مايكرو رائعة

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  • ارجو التثبيت اسئلة مايكرو رائعة

    بس بتمني لو اي واحد امتحن الهيئة قريب في المايكرو ينزل لينا الاسئلة وربنا يجعلها في ميزان حسناتكم انشاء اللة ودعواتكم
    - Acid Fast Bacteria
    a- Salmonella
    b- Shigella
    c- M. Tuberculosis
    d- E – Coli
    192- Spherical or avoid cells occurring in chains
    a- Staphylococci
    b- Streptococci
    c- Lactobacillus
    d- Spiro chaeta

    193- ……………… carries the genetic information
    a- the envelope
    b- the capsid
    c- the nucleic acid
    d- the prion

    194- …………………… may be seen under light microscope
    a- rota virus
    b- influenza virus
    c- herps virus
    d- pox virus

    195- viruses may be:
    a- monomorphic
    b- pleomorphic
    c- dimorphic
    d- all of the above

    196- viral capside is formed of:
    a- protein
    b- glycogen
    c- lipoprotein bilayer
    d- glycoprotein

    197- class III in Baltimor classification is:
    a- double stranded DNA viruses
    b- single stranded DNA viruses
    c- double stranded RNA viruses
    d- single stranded RNA viruses

    198- Hierarchial virus classification system use the following characters except:
    a- nature of nucleic acid
    b- capside symmetry
    c- diameter of viron & capside
    d- virus molecular weight
    199- in viral replication which is true:
    a- penetration is the 1st step
    b- assembly is the last step
    c- relaease is the last step
    d- all of the above

    200- viron:
    a- may be extracellular phase of virus
    b- may be intracellular phase of virus
    c- can grow and replicate
    d- means “ virus – like “

    201- pleomorphic viruses means :
    a- virus which have constant shape
    b- virus that may appear in 2 forms
    c- virus that have not a constant morphology
    d- virus that have spherical shape

    202- vapor of gold is used in :
    a- shadow casting technique
    b- negative staining technique
    c- positive staining technique
    d- non of the above

    203- direct diagnosis of virus :
    a- ELISA Antibody
    b- CFT
    c- IFT
    d- PCR virus

    204- all of the following are required in cell culture except:
    a- neutral PH
    b- presence of buffer salts
    c- presence of antibiotics
    d- incubation at 20 C (( 30-37 C))

    205- all of the following are diagnostic molecular biological technique except:
    a- PCR
    b- ELISA
    c- nucleic acid hyperdization
    d- DNA finger printing
    206- PCR require all of the following except:
    a- extracted DNA template
    b- 2 specific primers
    c- reation buffer
    d- RNA polymerase

    207- bacteriophage is :
    a- virus that can be killed by antibiotic
    b- virus that act like a bacteria
    c- bacteria that act like a virus
    d- virus that infect bacteria

    208- all of the following viruses are transmitted by blood except:
    a- HIV
    b- HBV
    c- HCV
    d- herps virus

    209-all of the following are RNA viruses except:
    a- corona viridase
    b- reoviridase
    c- picorona viridase
    d- pox viridase

    210- penetration of naked virus is by :
    a- fusion
    b- endocytosis
    c- translocation
    d- all of the above

    211- amniotic cavity inoculation is one type of virus culture in:
    a- tissue wall
    b- lab animals
    c- embryonated egg
    d- non of the above

    212- …………….. is an invitro method amplification of a short sequence of target DNA
    a- PCR
    b- hyberdization
    c- finger printing
    d- all of the above

    213- nucleic acid hyberdization means:
    a- probe anneling or binding with it’s complementary
    segment of NA
    b- fragmentation of nucleic acid
    c- amplification of nucleic acid
    d- non of the above

    214- DNA hyberdization is performed by:
    a- primers
    b- DNA labeled probe
    c- restriction endonuclease
    d- non of the above

    215-PCR starts with :
    a- annealing
    b- denaturation of DNA
    c-extension of primers
    d- non of the above

    216- ……………….. is a piece of DNA fragment of a particular gene that can bind specially with it’s complementary piece of DNA:
    a- codon
    b- probe
    c- LCR
    d- code

    217- how many primers are used in PCR :
    a- non
    b- one
    c- two
    d- three

    304-Lowenstein-Jensen media is used for the isolation for:
    a- neisseria gonorrhea
    b- mycobacterium tuberculosis
    c- haemophilus influenza
    d- staphylococcus aureus



    305- Hekton-Enteric agar is the selective media for:
    a- salmonella
    b- streptococcus
    c- staphylococcus
    d- all of the above

    306- the selective media for isolation of fungi is:
    a- S-S agar
    b- XLD agar
    c- sabouraud glucose agar
    d- Hekton-Enteric agar

    307- gram positive rods with Chinese letter appearance:
    a- mycobacterium tuberculosis
    b- corynebacteria diphtheria
    c- clostridium tetani
    d- staphylococcus pneumonia

    308- E lek test is done to diagnose :
    a- streptococcus
    b- staphylococcus aureus
    c- clostridium tetani
    d- corynebacteria diphtheria

    309- all are lactose fermenter except:
    a- E-COLI
    b- proteus
    c- klebsiella
    d- enterobacter

    310- produce pale colonies on MacConkey’s agar and have tendency to swarm on blood agar:
    a- salmonella
    b- shigella
    c- klebsiella
    d- proteus





    311- lactose frementer gram negative bacilli with mucoid growth:
    a- salmonella
    b- shigella
    c- klebsiella
    d- proteus

    312-non lactose fermenter gram negative bacilli produce H2S :
    a- salmonella
    b- shigella
    c- klebsiella
    d- proteus

    313- Widal test is done for diagnosis of :
    a- salmonella
    b- shigella
    c- E-coli
    d- klebsiella

    314- the causative agent of enteric fever:
    a- salmonella
    b- shigella
    c- klebsiella
    d- proteus

    315- the most common cause of urinary tract infection :
    a- E-coli
    b- salmonella
    c- shigella
    d- streptococcus

    316- an important cause of diarrhea in infant:
    a- staphylococcus
    b- E-coli
    c- salmonella
    d- shigella

    317- the most common causative agent for peptic ulcer :
    a- campylobacter
    b- H-pylori
    c- V-cholera
    d- all of the above
    318- TCBS is the selective media for isolation of:
    a- H-pylori
    b- V-cholera
    c- E-coli
    d- H influenza

    319- gram negative bacilli strict aerobes grows on simple media producing a characteristic greenish pigment:
    a- campylobacter
    b- pseudomonas
    c- pasterulla
    d- bordetella

    320- the bacteria which cause scarlet fever:
    a- staphylococcus
    b- streptococcus
    c- salmonella
    d- shigella

    321- antistreptolysin O titer (ASO) is done for the diagnosis of:
    a- group A streptococcus
    b- group B streptococcus
    c- staphylococcus aureus
    d- staphylococcus albus

    323- Loffler’s serum is used for isolation of:
    a- anthrax
    b- clostridium
    c- diphtheria
    d- T.B

    324- gas gangrene is caused by:
    a- clostridium tetani
    b- clostridium botulinum
    c- clostridium welchii
    d- non of the above (( clostridium perfinges ))

    325- Bacillary dysentery is caused by:
    a- salmonella
    b- shigella
    c- cholera
    d- all of the above

    326- the cause of plague:
    a- Y-enterocolitica
    b- Y-pestis
    c- Y pseudotuberculsois
    d- non of the above

    327- treponema palladium is the cause of :
    a- T.B
    b- gonorrhea
    c- syphilis
    d- AIDS

    328- the venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL) is done for diagnosis of:
    a- T.B
    b- gonorrhea
    c- syphilis
    d- AIDS

    329- Trachoma is caused by:
    a- mycoplasma
    b- chlamydiae
    c-richettsia
    d- mycobacteria

    391- M-tuberculsis bacilli stain with :
    a- gram stain
    b- Zheil Nelson stain
    c- Gimesa stain
    d- all of the above

    392- AIDS is transmitted through :
    a- food
    b- blood
    c- semen
    d- (b) & (c)
    393- bacteria which cause syphilis:
    a- Neisseria gonorrhea
    b- Viencent angina
    c- Treponema palladium
    d- Yersinia pestis

    394- to diagnose syphilis:
    a- RPR
    b- VDRL
    c- Wasserman
    d- all of the above

    395- streptococci secret:
    a- streptolysin O
    b- streptolysin S
    c- streptokinase
    d- all of the above

    396- disease caused by streptococci:
    a- scarlet fever
    b- purperal sepsis
    c- rheumatic fever
    d- all of the above

    397- staphylococci secrets:
    a- coagulase enzyme
    b- fibrinolysin
    c- hyaluronidase
    d- all of the above

    398- gram positive bacilli:
    a- Klebsilla
    b- Salmonella
    c- Proteus
    d- C-diphtheria

    399- meningeococcal meningitis is transmitted by :
    a- food
    b- droplet
    c- touch
    d- all of the above

    400- dark field microscopy is used to diagnose :
    a- T.B.
    b- syphilis
    c- gonorrhea
    d- AIDS

    401- it cause food poisining with flacid paralysis:
    a- clostridium tetani
    b- clostridium welchii
    c- clostridium botulinium
    d- all of the above

    402- the infective stage of plasmodium vivax :
    a-merozoites
    b- sporozoites
    c- schizont
    d- trophozoite

    403- Pirenella conica snail is the intermediate host of:
    a- schistosoma haematobium
    b- fasciola hiptica
    c- heterphyes heterophyes
    d- diphyllobothrium latum

    404- Bulinus truncates snail is the intermediate host of :
    a- fasciola hepatica
    b- fasciola gigantica
    c- schistosoma haematobium
    d- schistosoma mansonii

    405- to isolate meningiococci we have to culture the sample on:
    a- Bordet Gengou
    b- modified Thayer martin media
    c- Lowenstein Jensen media
    d- all of the above

    406- to isolate fungi :
    a- Brain-Heart infusion media
    b- tissue culture
    c- Lowenstein –Jensen media
    d- chocolate agar

    407- to isolate H- influenza:
    a- blood agar
    b- chocolate agar
    c- mac Conkey media
    d- all of the above

    408- the bacteria which cause pseudomembrainous conjunctivitis :
    a- N.gonorrhea
    b- C. diphtheria
    c- staphylococcus
    d- Chlamydia

    409- the best sample to diagnose meningitis :
    a- blood
    b- sputum
    c- CSF
    d- urine

    410- used to stain Chlamydia
    a- gram stain
    b- giemsa stain
    c- wright stain
    d- all of the above
    411-……….. is used as transport medium for sample in which cholera is suspected
    a- Cary-Blair media
    b- Stuart media
    c- Alkaline peptone water
    d- glycerol

    412- the color of XLD medium:
    a- green
    b- red
    c- yellow
    d- blue

    413- CIN medium is used to isolate:
    a- E.coli
    b- Vibrio cholera
    c- yersinia
    d- salmonella

    414- to make wet mount preparation:
    a- 10 % KOH
    b- 10 % Na OH
    c- 10 % Na CO3
    d- 10% Na Cl

    415- we do wet mount preparation for vaginal smear To diagnose:
    a- T.vaginalis
    b- N.gonorrhea
    c- streptococci
    d- staphylococci

    416- to isolate viruses:
    a- Loeffler media
    b- tissue culture
    c- Bordet –Gengou media
    d- Brain- Heart infusion

    417- to diagnose whooping cough :
    a- Bordet –Gengou media
    b- Lowenstein –Jensen media
    c- modified Thayer martin media
    d- New York city agar

    418- to diagnose systemic infection we do :
    a- urine culture
    b- CSF culture
    c- blood culture
    d- sputum culture

    419- we give no growth for blood culture after:
    a- 1 week
    b- 8 weeks
    c- 6 weeks
    d- 3 weeks





    420- to dissolve mucous in sputum sample :
    a- 10% NaOH
    b- 30 % NaOH
    c- 10 % KOH
    d- 10% NaCl

    421- mutualism means:
    a- one partener benefits , other unaffected
    b- both partner benefit
    c- one partner benefit , other damaged
    d- living together

    422- Commensalisms means:
    a- living together
    b- one partner benefit , other damaged
    c- both partner benefit
    d- one partner benefits , other unaffected

    423- Balantidium coli moves by:
    a- flagella
    b- cilia
    d- pseudopod
    d- all of the above

    424- Mouth inhabitant:
    a- Trichomonas hominis
    b- Trichomonas tenax
    c- Trichomonas vaginalis
    d- giardia lamblia

    425- Transmitted by sexual intercourse:
    a- toxoplasma
    b- giardia lamblia
    c- Trichomonas vaginalis
    d- all of the above

    465- citrate utilization test is done to assist identification of:
    a- gram +ve bacteria
    b- gram –ve bacteria
    c- entrobacteria
    d- enterococcus

    466- the Kovac's reagent used in the following biochemical tests:
    a- catalase
    b- coagulase
    c- indole
    d- methyl red

    467- positive results for H2S production appear as …. Colour:
    a- black
    c- yellow
    c- red
    d- green

    468-………. Give positive coagulase test:
    a- streptococci
    b- staphylococcus aureus
    c- staphylococcus saprophyticus
    d- Escherichia coli

    469- methyl red test is performed with:
    a- Erlich reagent
    b- Kovac's reagent
    c- Voges proskaur
    d- non of the above

    470- ………… give positive result with urease test:
    a- salmonella
    b- shigella
    c- Y. enterocolitica
    d- all of the above

    471-…………. test is used to differentiate between bacteroides & brucella:
    a- indole
    b- methyl red
    c- H2S production
    d- nitrate reduction

    472- DNAase test is positive with:
    a- streptococcus pneumonia
    b- E.coli
    c- staphylococcus aureus
    d- staphylococcus epidermis

    473- ………… solution used in the gram stain technique acts as a mordant:
    a- crystal violet
    b- safranine
    c- iodine
    d- alcohol

    474- the counter stain in Ziehl- Neelson stain is :
    a- malachite green
    b- methylene blue
    c- iodine
    d- (a) & (b)

    475- bile solubility test is positive with :
    a- streptococcus viridans
    b- streptococcus pneumonia
    c- streptococcus agalectiae
    d- streptococcus pyrogenes
    During replication of DNA, copying errors may occur and this is called
    a- Conjugation
    b- Transduction
    c- Transformation
    d- Mutation

    132- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
    a- grow only in presence of oxygen
    b- grow only in absence of oxygen
    c- grow either in presence or absence of oxygen
    d- grow in presence of oxygen traces and 5 – 10% CO2

    133- Neutrophilic bacteria grow well at
    a- pH 8.5 – 9.0
    b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
    c- pH 5.0 – 5.5
    d- pH 2.5 – 3.0

    134- The rate of cell death increase and bacterial growth stopped, this is
    a- Adaptation phase
    b- Exponential phase .
    c- Stationary phase.
    d- Decline Phase

    135- Beta-hemolytic
    a- Cause complete hemolysis of RBC’s
    b- Cause chemical change of Hemoglobin in RBC’s
    c- Do not cause hemolysis
    d- None of them





    146- Mesophilic bacteria grow at:
    a- 37°C
    b- 14°C
    c- 60°C
    d- 120°C

    137- Circulation of Bacteria and its toxins in blood
    a- Pyaemia
    b- Toxemia
    c.- Bacteremia - without toxins
    d- Septicemia

    138- Disinfections that applied on living or injured tissues:
    a- Sterilization
    b- Antiseptic
    c- Sanitation
    d- Decontamination

    139- Hot air oven is used for sterilization of
    a- Glass
    b- Rubber Gloves
    c.- Plastic Syringes
    d- Catheters

    140- Disinfectant for superficial fungal infection
    a- Phenol
    b- Potassium permanganate
    c- Chlorine
    d- Hypochlorite compounds

    141- Rifampin
    a- inhibit cell wall synthesis
    b- inhibit protein synthesis
    c- inhibit folic acid pathway
    d- inhibit mRNA synthesis

    142- Transacetylase inactivate
    a- aminoglycosides
    b- chloramphenicol
    c- penicillin
    d- cephalosporins

    143- The color of gram positive bacteria is
    a- Yellow
    b- Black.
    c- Pink
    d- Violet

    144- Selective media for fungi
    a- blood agar
    b- Mac Conkey agar
    c- Nutrient agar
    d- Sabourand’s dextrose agar

    145- Histoplasma is a :
    a- Systemic mycosis
    b- Sub – Cutaneous mycosis
    c- Cutaneous mycosis
    d- Superficial mycosis

    146- All are asexual spores produced by mould except
    a- Conidio – spores
    b- Sporangio – spores
    c- Endospores
    d- Arthro – spores

    147- They reproduce only by Asexual reproduction
    a- Blastomycosis
    b- Deutromycosis
    c- Ascomycetes
    d- Zygomycetes

    148- The functions of cell wall is all of the following except:
    a- Giving the shape to the bacteria
    b- Carrying somatic antigen
    c-Selective permeability& transport of solutes = plasma membrane
    d- Protect the bacteria from plasmolysis

    149- Atrichous Bacteria are:
    a- Bacteria contain one flagellum
    b- Bacteria contain 2 flagella
    c- Bacteria without flagella
    d- Bacteria with a tuft of flagella

    150-__________ are essential for host cell attachment:
    a- Flagella
    b- Fimbria
    c- Spores
    d- Capsules

    151- Irregular clusters of spherical cells:
    a- Streptococcus
    b- Staphylococcus
    c- Lactobacillus
    d- Escherichia

    152- Clostridium Botulinum is:
    a- Obligatory Aerobic Bacteria
    b- Facultative Anaerobic Bacteria
    c- Obligatory Anaerobic Bacteria
    d- Micro- aerophilic Bacteria

    153- Basophilic Bacteria grow well at:
    a- pH 8.5 – 9.0
    b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
    c- pH 5.0 – 5.5
    d- None of the above

    154- Cells are divided at high & constant rate:
    a- Decline Phase
    b- Stationary Phase
    c- Log Exponential Phase
    d- Adaptation Phase

    155- The dominant bacterial species in dental plaque are:
    a- Coagulase Negative Staphylococci
    b- Lactobacillus
    c- Bacteroides
    d- Streptococcus Sanguis

    156- The spread of Pyogenic Bacteria in blood stream to different organs & produce multiple abscess is:
    a- Septicemia
    b- Bacteremia
    c-Toxemia
    d- Pyaemia
    157- Inhibit the growth of micro organisms
    a- Bacteriostatic
    b- Bactericidal
    c- Fungicidal
    d- Germicidal

    158- To sterilize fluid damaged by heat:
    a- Gaseous Sterilization
    b- Heat Sterilization
    c- Filtration
    d- Ionizing Radiation

    159- For water disinfection we use:
    a- Hydrogen peroxide
    b- Formaldehyde
    c- Chlorine
    d- Hypochlorite compounds

    160- Mechanism of action of penicillin:
    a- Block peptidoglycan synthesis
    b- Inhibit peptidyglycan cross – linking
    c- inhibit folic acid pathway
    d- inhibit protein synthesis

    161- Sulfonamides:
    a- inhibit cell wall synthesis
    b- inhibit protein synthesis
    c- inhibit DNA synthesis
    d- inhibit folic acid pathway

    162- Acetylase inactivates:
    a- B – Lactam antibiotics
    b- Aminoglycosides
    c- Cloramphenicol
    d- All of the above

    163- Ringworm disease is caused by
    a- Zygomycetes
    b- Ascomycetes
    c- Blastomycosis
    d- None of the above

    164- For wet – mount technique we add:
    a- NaoH
    b- K oH
    c- H2 O2
    d- All of the above

    165- They are transmitted by arthropods
    a- Chlamydia
    b- Spirochetes
    c- Mycoplasma
    d- All of the above

    166- In the past they were listed as large viruses
    a- Richettsia
    b- Mycoplasma
    c- Chlamydia
    d- None of the above

    167- Bacteria multiply by:
    a- Replication cycle
    b- Simple binary fission
    c- Sexual reproduction
    d- All of the above

    168- It protects bacteria from antibiotics
    a- Capsule
    b- Cell membrane
    c- Flagella
    d- Fimbria

    169- Vibro cholera is:
    a- Mono –trichous bacteria
    b- Atrichous bacteria
    c- Lopho-trichous bacteria
    d- Peri-trichous bacteria

    170- Short rods, motile by peritrichous flagella
    a- Spirochaeta
    b- Lactobacillus
    c- Escherichia coli
    d- Vibrio
    171- To take up soluble DNA fragments derived from other, closely related species is:
    a. Mutation
    b. Transformation
    c. Transduction
    d. Conjugation

    172- Tuberculosis are
    a- micro-airophilic
    b- Facultative anaerobic
    c- Obligatory anaerobic
    d- Obligatory aerobic

    173- According to pH, Lactobacillus is
    a- Neutrophlic bacteria
    b- Acidophilic bacteria
    c- Basophilic bacteria
    d- None of the above

    174- Bacteria without cell Wall
    a- Chlamydia
    b- Rickettsia
    c- Mycoplasma
    d.- Spirochetes

    175- Brucella Melitensis is
    a- Obligatory aerobic bacteria
    b- Obligatory anaerobic bacteria
    c- Facultative anaerobic bacteria
    d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria

    176- Pseudomonas aeroginosa is
    a- Peri-trichous bacteria
    b- Lopho-trichous bacteria
    c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
    d- Monotrichous bacteria

    177- Genetic information of bacteria is carried on
    a- Messenger RNA
    b- Transfer RN|A
    c- Tran****** RNA
    d- Double – Stranded DNA
    178- Thermophilic bacteria grow at
    a- 60 – 80 °C
    b- 0 - 20°C
    c-. 37°C
    d- 100 - 120°C

    179- Acidophilic bacteria grow at
    a- pH 7.2 – 7.4
    b- pH 5.0 – 5.5
    c- pH 8.5 – 9.0
    d- None of the above

    180- Mycoplasma is
    a- Neutrophilic bacteria
    b- Acidophilic bacteria
    c- Basophilic bacteria
    d- All of the above

    181- It is the adaptation of bacteria to the fresh medium
    a- Lag phase
    b- Decline phase
    c- Logarithmic Phase
    d- Stationary phase

    182- Bacteria which do not cause hemolysis is
    a- Beta-Hemolytic
    b- Alpha-Hemolytic
    c- Gama Hemolytic
    d- None of the above

    183- Normal flora of Lower intestine are all of the following except:
    a- Staphylococci
    b- Diphtheroids
    c- Shigella
    d- Lactobacillus

    184- Opportunistic pathogens are all of the following except:
    a- Cause a disease when the host defense are suppressed.
    b- Are normal flora of healthy body
    c- Are greatly harmful
    d- Do not invade the body or tissue.
    185- For disinfection of mattresses :
    a- Hot air oven
    b- Autoclave
    c- Ethylene Oxide
    d- Hydrogen Peroxide

    186- Pyschrophilic bacteria grow at:
    a- 10٠°C
    b- 6٠°C
    c- 14°C
    d- 37°C

    187- Bacteria which contain chlorophyll
    a- Heterotrophic bacteria
    b- Autotrophic bacteria
    c- Photosynthetic bacteria
    d- All of the above

    188- Tricophyton is one of
    a- Yeast
    b- Moulds
    c- Dermatophyte
    d- Dimorphic Fungi

    189- Plastomyces is one of
    a- Dermatophytes
    b- Dimorphic Fungi
    c- Yeast
    d- Moulds

    190- Color of gram negative bacteria is
    a- Violet
    b- Green
    c- Red
    d- Black


    BACTERIOLOGY
    118- All are Prokaryotic cells except:
    a- Fungi
    b- Bacteria
    c - Chlamydia
    d- Mycoplasma

    119- Viruses:
    a- Contain only DNA or RNA
    b - They Contain ribosome
    c- Did not affected by antibiotics
    d- a+c

    120- All of these are essential structure except:
    a- Nuclear body
    b- Spores
    c- Cell wall
    d- Plasma Membrane

    121- ________ is giving the shape to the bacteria
    a.- Cytoplasmic Membrane
    b- Capsule
    c- Cell Wall
    d- All of the above

    122- One of its functions is selective permeability
    a- Cell wall
    b- Plasma membrane
    c- Capsule
    d- Spores

    123- They are responsible for Haemagglutination Phenomenon
    a- Flagella
    b- Fimbria
    c- Capsule
    d- Cell wall





    124- Clostridium Tetani is:
    a- Atrichous bacteria
    b- Mono-trichous bacteria
    c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
    d- Peri-trichous bacteria

    125- Short curved or straight rods, motile by single polar flagellum
    a- spirochaeta
    b- Vibrio
    c- Escherichia
    d- Lactobacillus

    126- Small gram negative cocci, occur in pairs
    a- staphylococcus
    b- streptococcus
    c- neisseria
    d- non of the above

    127- Transfer of genetic information from one bacterium to another by
    bacteriophages is:
    a. Transformation
    b. Tansduction
    c. Conjugation
    d. Mutation

    128- Salmonella are:
    a- Obligatory Aerobic bacteria
    b.- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
    c- Facultative Anaerobic bacteria
    d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria

    129- According to pH, vibrio cholera is
    a- Osmophilic bacteria
    b- Basophilic bacteria
    c- Acidophilic bacteria
    d- Neutrophilic bacteria




    130- Staphylococci are:
    a- Atrichous bacteria
    b- Mono-trichous bacteria
    c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
    d- Peri-trichous bacteria
    التعديل الأخير تم بواسطة hiba kailani; الساعة 07-02-2011, 08:09 PM.

  • #2
    مشكور جدا على الاسئله مممكن الاجابات

    تعليق


    • #3
      يعطيك العافية .. بس الأسئلة ماهي محلولةة ..
      بعدين الأسئلة هذي .. هي تجي بآلأختبار بعد شهـرر ..،
      22 آكتـوبر ، بــررب آلـريآض .. ولكمــــوووء نيـويـورك ..

      تعليق


      • #4
        يعطيكي الف عافية ويسلمك
        عن جد فرصة الواحد يجدد معلوماته
        [CENTER]كن كالمطر اينما وقع نفع[/CENTER]

        تعليق


        • #5
          المشاركة الأصلية بواسطة hiba kailani مشاهدة المشاركة
          بس بتمني لو اي واحد امتحن الهيئة قريب في المايكرو ينزل لينا الاسئلة وربنا يجعلها في ميزان حسناتكم انشاء اللة ودعواتكم
          - Acid Fast Bacteria
          a- Salmonella
          b- Shigella
          c- M. Tuberculosisd- E – Coli
          192- Spherical or avoid cells occurring in chains
          a- Staphylococci
          b- Streptococcic- Lactobacillus
          d- Spiro chaeta

          193- ……………… carries the genetic information
          a- the envelope
          b- the capsid
          c- the nucleic acidd- the prion

          194- …………………… may be seen under light microscope
          a- rota virus
          b- influenza virus
          c- herps virus
          d- pox virus

          195- viruses may be:
          a- monomorphic
          b- pleomorphic
          c- dimorphic
          d- all of the above

          196- viral capside is formed of:
          a- protein
          b- glycogen
          c- lipoprotein bilayer
          d- glycoprotein

          197- class III in Baltimor classification is:
          a- double stranded DNA viruses
          b- single stranded DNA viruses
          c- double stranded RNA viruses
          d- single stranded RNA viruses

          198- Hierarchial virus classification system use the following characters except:
          a- nature of nucleic acid
          b- capside symmetry
          c- diameter of viron & capside
          d- virus molecular weight
          199- in viral replication which is true:
          a- penetration is the 1st step
          b- assembly is the last step
          c- relaease is the last step
          d- all of the above

          200- viron:
          a- may be extracellular phase of virus
          b- may be intracellular phase of virus
          c- can grow and replicate
          d- means “ virus – like “

          201- pleomorphic viruses means :
          a- virus which have constant shape
          b- virus that may appear in 2 forms
          c- virus that have not a constant morphology
          d- virus that have spherical shape

          202- vapor of gold is used in :
          a- shadow casting technique
          b- negative staining technique
          c- positive staining technique
          d- non of the above

          203- direct diagnosis of virus :
          a- ELISA Antibody
          b- CFT
          c- IFT
          d- PCR virus
          204- all of the following are required in cell culture except:
          a- neutral PH
          b- presence of buffer salts
          c- presence of antibiotics
          d- incubation at 20 C (( 30-37 C))

          205- all of the following are diagnostic molecular biological technique except:
          a- PCR
          b- ELISAc- nucleic acid hyperdization
          d- DNA finger printing
          206- PCR require all of the following except:
          a- extracted DNA template
          b- 2 specific primers
          c- reation buffer
          d- RNA polymerase

          207- bacteriophage is :
          a- virus that can be killed by antibiotic
          b- virus that act like a bacteria
          c- bacteria that act like a virus
          d- virus that infect bacteria

          208- all of the following viruses are transmitted by blood except:
          a- HIV
          b- HBV
          c- HCV
          d- herps virus
          209-all of the following are RNA viruses except:
          a- corona viridase
          b- reoviridase
          c- picorona viridase
          d- pox viridase

          210- penetration of naked virus is by :
          a- fusion
          b- endocytosis
          c- translocation
          d- all of the above

          211- amniotic cavity inoculation is one type of virus culture in:
          a- tissue wall
          b- lab animalsc- embryonated egg
          d- non of the above

          212- …………….. is an invitro method amplification of a short sequence of target DNA
          a- PCRb- hyberdization
          c- finger printing
          d- all of the above

          213- nucleic acid hyberdization means:
          a- probe anneling or binding with it’s complementarysegment of NA
          b- fragmentation of nucleic acid
          c- amplification of nucleic acid
          d- non of the above

          214- DNA hyberdization is performed by:
          a- primers
          b- DNA labeled probe
          c- restriction endonuclease
          d- non of the above

          215-PCR starts with :
          a- annealing
          b- denaturation of DNAc-extension of primers
          d- non of the above

          216- ……………….. is a piece of DNA fragment of a particular gene that can bind specially with it’s complementary piece of DNA:
          a- codon
          b- probec- LCR
          d- code

          217- how many primers are used in PCR :
          a- non
          b- one
          c- twod- three

          304-Lowenstein-Jensen media is used for the isolation for:
          a- neisseria gonorrhea
          b- mycobacterium tuberculosisc- haemophilus influenza
          d- staphylococcus aureus



          305- Hekton-Enteric agar is the selective media for:
          a- salmonellab- streptococcus
          c- staphylococcus
          d- all of the above

          306- the selective media for isolation of fungi is:
          a- S-S agar
          b- XLD agar
          c- sabouraud glucose agard- Hekton-Enteric agar

          307- gram positive rods with Chinese letter appearance:
          a- mycobacterium tuberculosis
          b- corynebacteria diphtheriac- clostridium tetani
          d- staphylococcus pneumonia

          308- E lek test is done to diagnose :
          a- streptococcus
          b- staphylococcus aureus
          c- clostridium tetanid- corynebacteria diphtheria

          309- all are lactose fermenter except:
          a- E-COLI
          b- proteusc- klebsiella
          d- enterobacter

          310- produce pale colonies on MacConkey’s agar and have tendency to swarm on blood agar:
          a- salmonella
          b- shigella
          c- klebsiella
          d- proteus




          311- lactose frementer gram negative bacilli with mucoid growth:
          a- salmonella
          b- shigella
          c- klebsiellad- proteus

          312-non lactose fermenter gram negative bacilli produce H2S :
          a- salmonellab- shigella
          c- klebsiella
          d- proteus

          313- Widal test is done for diagnosis of :
          a- salmonellab- shigella
          c- E-coli
          d- klebsiella

          314- the causative agent of enteric fever:
          a- salmonellab- shigella
          c- klebsiella
          d- proteus

          315- the most common cause of urinary tract infection :
          a- E-colib- salmonella
          c- shigella
          d- streptococcus

          316- an important cause of diarrhea in infant:
          a- staphylococcus
          b- E-coli
          c- salmonella
          d- shigella

          317- the most common causative agent for peptic ulcer :
          a- campylobacter
          b- H-pyloric- V-cholera
          d- all of the above
          318- TCBS is the selective media for isolation of:
          a- H-pylori
          b- V-cholerac- E-coli
          d- H influenza

          319- gram negative bacilli strict aerobes grows on simple media producing a characteristic greenish pigment:
          a- campylobacter
          b- pseudomonasc- pasterulla
          d- bordetella

          320- the bacteria which cause scarlet fever:
          a- staphylococcus
          b- streptococcusc- salmonella
          d- shigella

          321- antistreptolysin O titer (ASO) is done for the diagnosis of:
          a- group A streptococcusb- group B streptococcus
          c- staphylococcus aureus
          d- staphylococcus albus

          323- Loffler’s serum is used for isolation of:
          a- anthrax
          b- clostridium
          c- diphtheriad- T.B

          324- gas gangrene is caused by:
          a- clostridium tetani
          b- clostridium botulinum
          c- clostridium welchii
          d- non of the above (( clostridium perfinges ))
          325- Bacillary dysentery is caused by:
          a- salmonella
          b- shigellac- cholera
          d- all of the above

          326- the cause of plague:
          a- Y-enterocolitica
          b- Y-pestisc- Y pseudotuberculsois
          d- non of the above

          327- treponema palladium is the cause of :
          a- T.B
          b- gonorrhea
          c- syphilisd- AIDS

          328- the venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL) is done for diagnosis of:
          a- T.B
          b- gonorrhea
          c- syphilisd- AIDS

          329- Trachoma is caused by:
          a- mycoplasma
          b- chlamydiaec-richettsia
          d- mycobacteria

          391- M-tuberculsis bacilli stain with :
          a- gram stain
          b- Zheil Nelson stainc- Gimesa stain
          d- all of the above

          392- AIDS is transmitted through :
          a- food
          b- blood
          c- semen
          d- (b) & (c)393- bacteria which cause syphilis:
          a- Neisseria gonorrhea
          b- Viencent angina
          c- Treponema palladiumd- Yersinia pestis

          394- to diagnose syphilis:
          a- RPR
          b- VDRL
          c- Wasserman
          d- all of the above
          395- streptococci secret:
          a- streptolysin O
          b- streptolysin S
          c- streptokinase
          d- all of the above
          396- disease caused by streptococci:
          a- scarlet fever
          b- purperal sepsis
          c- rheumatic fever
          d- all of the above
          397- staphylococci secrets:
          a- coagulase enzyme
          b- fibrinolysin
          c- hyaluronidase
          d- all of the above
          398- gram positive bacilli:
          a- Klebsilla
          b- Salmonella
          c- Proteus
          d- C-diphtheria
          399- meningeococcal meningitis is transmitted by :
          a- food
          b- dropletc- touch
          d- all of the above

          400- dark field microscopy is used to diagnose :
          a- T.B.
          b- syphilisc- gonorrhea
          d- AIDS

          401- it cause food poisining with flacid paralysis:
          a- clostridium tetani
          b- clostridium welchii
          c- clostridium botulinium
          d- all of the above

          402- the infective stage of plasmodium vivax :
          a-merozoites
          b- sporozoites
          c- schizont
          d- trophozoite

          403- Pirenella conica snail is the intermediate host of:
          a- schistosoma haematobium
          b- fasciola hiptica
          c- heterphyes heterophyes
          d- diphyllobothrium latum

          404- Bulinus truncates snail is the intermediate host of :
          a- fasciola hepatica
          b- fasciola gigantica
          c- schistosoma haematobium
          d- schistosoma mansonii

          405- to isolate meningiococci we have to culture the sample on:
          a- Bordet Gengou
          b- modified Thayer martin mediac- Lowenstein Jensen media
          d- all of the above

          406- to isolate fungi :
          a- Brain-Heart infusion media
          b- tissue culture
          c- Lowenstein –Jensen media
          d- chocolate agar

          407- to isolate H- influenza:
          a- blood agar
          b- chocolate agarc- mac Conkey media
          d- all of the above

          408- the bacteria which cause pseudomembrainous conjunctivitis :
          a- N.gonorrhea
          b- C. diphtheria
          c- staphylococcus
          d- Chlamydia

          409- the best sample to diagnose meningitis :
          a- blood
          b- sputum
          c- CSFd- urine

          410- used to stain Chlamydia
          a- gram stain
          b- giemsa stain
          c- wright stain
          d- all of the above
          411-……….. is used as transport medium for sample in which cholera is suspected
          a- Cary-Blair mediab- Stuart media
          c- Alkaline peptone water
          d- glycerol

          412- the color of XLD medium:
          a- green
          b- redc- yellow
          d- blue

          413- CIN medium is used to isolate:
          a- E.coli
          b- Vibrio cholera
          c- yersinia
          d- salmonella

          414- to make wet mount preparation:
          a- 10 % KOH
          b- 10 % Na OH
          c- 10 % Na CO3
          d- 10% Na Cl
          415- we do wet mount preparation for vaginal smear To diagnose:
          a- T.vaginalisb- N.gonorrhea
          c- streptococci
          d- staphylococci

          416- to isolate viruses:
          a- Loeffler media
          b- tissue culturec- Bordet –Gengou media
          d- Brain- Heart infusion

          417- to diagnose whooping cough :
          a- Bordet –Gengou mediab- Lowenstein –Jensen media
          c- modified Thayer martin media
          d- New York city agar

          418- to diagnose systemic infection we do :
          a- urine culture
          b- CSF culture
          c- blood cultured- sputum culture

          419- we give no growth for blood culture after:
          a- 1 weekb- 8 weeks
          c- 6 weeks
          d- 3 weeks





          420- to dissolve mucous in sputum sample :
          a- 10% NaOH
          b- 30 % NaOH
          c- 10 % KOH
          d- 10% NaCl

          421- mutualism means:
          a- one partener benefits , other unaffected
          b- both partner benefit
          c- one partner benefit , other damaged
          d- living together

          422- Commensalisms means:
          a- living together
          b- one partner benefit , other damaged
          c- both partner benefit
          d- one partner benefits , other unaffected
          423- Balantidium coli moves by:
          a- flagella
          b- cilia
          d- pseudopod
          d- all of the above

          424- Mouth inhabitant:
          a- Trichomonas hominis
          b- Trichomonas tenax
          c- Trichomonas vaginalis
          d- giardia lamblia

          425- Transmitted by sexual intercourse:
          a- toxoplasma
          b- giardia lamblia
          c- Trichomonas vaginalisd- all of the above

          465- citrate utilization test is done to assist identification of:
          a- gram +ve bacteria
          b- gram –ve bacteria
          c- entrobacteriad- enterococcus

          466- the Kovac's reagent used in the following biochemical tests:
          a- catalase
          b- coagulase
          c- indoled- methyl red

          467- positive results for H2S production appear as …. Colour:
          a- blackc- yellow
          c- red
          d- green

          468-………. Give positive coagulase test:
          a- streptococci
          b- staphylococcus aureusc- staphylococcus saprophyticus
          d- Escherichia coli

          469- methyl red test is performed with:
          a- Erlich reagent
          b- Kovac's reagent
          c- Voges proskaur
          d- non of the above

          470- ………… give positive result with urease test:
          a- salmonella
          b- shigella
          c- Y. enterocolitica
          d- all of the above

          471-…………. test is used to differentiate between bacteroides & brucella:
          a- indoleb- methyl redc- H2S production
          d- nitrate reduction

          472- DNAase test is positive with:
          a- streptococcus pneumonia
          b- E.coli
          c- staphylococcus aureusd- staphylococcus epidermis

          473- ………… solution used in the gram stain technique acts as a mordant:
          a- crystal violet
          b- safranine
          c- iodined- alcohol

          474- the counter stain in Ziehl- Neelson stain is :
          a- malachite green
          b- methylene blue
          c- iodine
          d- (a) & (b)
          475- bile solubility test is positive with :
          a- streptococcus viridans
          b- streptococcus pneumoniac- streptococcus agalectiae
          d- streptococcus pyrogenes
          During replication of DNA, copying errors may occur and this is called
          a- Conjugation
          b- Transduction
          c- Transformation
          d- Mutation

          132- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
          a- grow only in presence of oxygen
          b- grow only in absence of oxygenc- grow either in presence or absence of oxygen
          d- grow in presence of oxygen traces and 5 – 10% CO2

          133- Neutrophilic bacteria grow well at
          a- pH 8.5 – 9.0
          b- pH 7.2 – 7.4c- pH 5.0 – 5.5
          d- pH 2.5 – 3.0

          134- The rate of cell death increase and bacterial growth stopped, this is
          a- Adaptation phase
          b- Exponential phase .
          c- Stationary phase.
          d- Decline Phase
          135- Beta-hemolytic
          a- Cause complete hemolysis of RBC’sb- Cause chemical change of Hemoglobin in RBC’s
          c- Do not cause hemolysis
          d- None of them





          146- Mesophilic bacteria grow at:
          a- 37°Cb- 14°C
          c- 60°C
          d- 120°C

          137- Circulation of Bacteria and its toxins in blood
          a- Pyaemia
          b- Toxemia
          c.- Bacteremia - without toxins
          d- Septicemia
          138- Disinfections that applied on living or injured tissues:
          a- Sterilization
          b- Antisepticc- Sanitation
          d- Decontamination

          139- Hot air oven is used for sterilization of
          a- Glassb- Rubber Gloves
          c.- Plastic Syringes
          d- Catheters

          140- Disinfectant for superficial fungal infection
          a- Phenol
          b- Potassium permanganate
          c- Chlorine
          d- Hypochlorite compounds

          141- Rifampin
          a- inhibit cell wall synthesis
          b- inhibit protein synthesis
          c- inhibit folic acid pathway
          d- inhibit mRNA synthesis

          142- Transacetylase inactivate
          a- aminoglycosides
          b- chloramphenicol
          c- penicillin
          d- cephalosporins

          143- The color of gram positive bacteria is
          a- Yellow
          b- Black.
          c- Pink
          d- Violet
          144- Selective media for fungi
          a- blood agar
          b- Mac Conkey agar
          c- Nutrient agar
          d- Sabourand’s dextrose agar
          145- Histoplasma is a :
          a- Systemic mycosis
          b- Sub – Cutaneous mycosis
          c- Cutaneous mycosis
          d- Superficial mycosis

          146- All are asexual spores produced by mould except
          a- Conidio – spores
          b- Sporangio – spores
          c- Endospores
          d- Arthro – spores

          147- They reproduce only by Asexual reproduction
          a- Blastomycosis
          b- Deutromycosis
          c- Ascomycetes
          d- Zygomycetes

          148- The functions of cell wall is all of the following except:
          a- Giving the shape to the bacteria
          b- Carrying somatic antigen
          c-Selective permeability& transport of solutes = plasma membrane
          d- Protect the bacteria from plasmolysis
          149- Atrichous Bacteria are:
          a- Bacteria contain one flagellum
          b- Bacteria contain 2 flagella
          c- Bacteria without flagella
          d- Bacteria with a tuft of flagella

          150-__________ are essential for host cell attachment:
          a- Flagella
          b- Fimbriac- Spores
          d- Capsules

          151- Irregular clusters of spherical cells:
          a- Streptococcus
          b- Staphylococcusc- Lactobacillus
          d- Escherichia

          152- Clostridium Botulinum is:
          a- Obligatory Aerobic Bacteria
          b- Facultative Anaerobic Bacteria
          c- Obligatory Anaerobic Bacteriad- Micro- aerophilic Bacteria

          153- Basophilic Bacteria grow well at:
          a- pH 8.5 – 9.0b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
          c- pH 5.0 – 5.5
          d- None of the above

          154- Cells are divided at high & constant rate:
          a- Decline Phase
          b- Stationary Phasec- Log Exponential Phase
          d- Adaptation Phase

          155- The dominant bacterial species in dental plaque are:
          a- Coagulase Negative Staphylococci
          b- Lactobacillus
          c- Bacteroides
          d- Streptococcus Sanguis
          156- The spread of Pyogenic Bacteria in blood stream to different organs & produce multiple abscess is:
          a- Septicemia
          b- Bacteremia
          c-Toxemia
          d- Pyaemia
          157- Inhibit the growth of micro organisms
          a- Bacteriostaticb- Bactericidal
          c- Fungicidal
          d- Germicidal

          158- To sterilize fluid damaged by heat:
          a- Gaseous Sterilization
          b- Heat Sterilization
          c- Filtration
          d- Ionizing Radiation

          159- For water disinfection we use:
          a- Hydrogen peroxide
          b- Formaldehyde
          c- Chlorined- Hypochlorite compounds

          160- Mechanism of action of penicillin:
          a- Block peptidoglycan synthesis
          b- Inhibit peptidyglycan cross – linking
          c- inhibit folic acid pathway
          d- inhibit protein synthesis

          161- Sulfonamides:
          a- inhibit cell wall synthesis
          b- inhibit protein synthesis
          c- inhibit DNA synthesis
          d- inhibit folic acid pathway

          162- Acetylase inactivates:
          a- B – Lactam antibiotics
          b- Aminoglycosides
          c- Cloramphenicol
          d- All of the above

          163- Ringworm disease is caused by
          a- Zygomycetes
          b- Ascomycetes
          c- Blastomycosis
          d- None of the above

          164- For wet – mount technique we add:
          a- NaoH
          b- K oH
          c- H2 O2
          d- All of the above

          165- They are transmitted by arthropods
          a- Chlamydia
          b- Spirochetes
          c- Mycoplasma
          d- All of the above

          166- In the past they were listed as large viruses
          a- Richettsia
          b- Mycoplasma
          c- Chlamydia
          d- None of the above

          167- Bacteria multiply by:
          a- Replication cycle
          b- Simple binary fissionc- Sexual reproduction
          d- All of the above

          168- It protects bacteria from antibiotics
          a- Capsule
          b- Cell membrane
          c- Flagella
          d- Fimbria

          169- Vibro cholera is:
          a- Mono –trichous bacteria
          b- Atrichous bacteria
          c- Lopho-trichous bacteria
          d- Peri-trichous bacteria

          170- Short rods, motile by peritrichous flagella
          a- Spirochaeta
          b- Lactobacillus
          c- Escherichia coli
          d- Vibrio
          171- To take up soluble DNA fragments derived from other, closely related species is:
          a. Mutation
          b. Transformation
          c. Transduction
          d. Conjugation

          172- Tuberculosis are
          a- micro-airophilic
          b- Facultative anaerobic
          c- Obligatory anaerobic
          d- Obligatory aerobic
          173- According to pH, Lactobacillus is
          a- Neutrophlic bacteria
          b- Acidophilic bacteriac- Basophilic bacteria
          d- None of the above

          174- Bacteria without cell Wall
          a- Chlamydia
          b- Rickettsia
          c- Mycoplasmad.- Spirochetes

          175- Brucella Melitensis is
          a- Obligatory aerobic bacteriab- Obligatory anaerobic bacteria
          c- Facultative anaerobic bacteria
          d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria

          176- Pseudomonas aeroginosa is
          a- Peri-trichous bacteria
          b- Lopho-trichous bacteria
          c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
          d- Monotrichous bacteria

          177- Genetic information of bacteria is carried on
          a- Messenger RNA
          b- Transfer RN|A
          c- Tran****** RNA
          d- Double – Stranded DNA
          178- Thermophilic bacteria grow at
          a- 60 – 80 °C
          b- 0 - 20°C
          c-. 37°C
          d- 100 - 120°C

          179- Acidophilic bacteria grow at
          a- pH 7.2 – 7.4
          b- pH 5.0 – 5.5c- pH 8.5 – 9.0
          d- None of the above

          180- Mycoplasma is
          a- Neutrophilic bacteria
          b- Acidophilic bacteria
          c- Basophilic bacteria
          d- All of the above

          181- It is the adaptation of bacteria to the fresh medium
          a- Lag phaseb- Decline phase
          c- Logarithmic Phase
          d- Stationary phase

          182- Bacteria which do not cause hemolysis is
          a- Beta-Hemolytic
          b- Alpha-Hemolytic
          c- Gama Hemolyticd- None of the above

          183- Normal flora of Lower intestine are all of the following except:
          a- Staphylococci
          b- Diphtheroids
          c- Shigellad- Lactobacillus

          184- Opportunistic pathogens are all of the following except:
          a- Cause a disease when the host defense are suppressed.b- Are normal flora of healthy body
          c- Are greatly harmful
          d- Do not invade the body or tissue.
          185- For disinfection of mattresses :
          a- Hot air oven
          b- Autoclave
          c- Ethylene Oxide
          d- Hydrogen Peroxide

          186- Pyschrophilic bacteria grow at:
          a- 10٠°C
          b- 6٠°C
          c- 14°C
          d- 37°C

          187- Bacteria which contain chlorophyll
          a- Heterotrophic bacteria
          b- Autotrophic bacteria
          c- Photosynthetic bacteriad- All of the above

          188- Tricophyton is one of
          a- Yeast
          b- Moulds
          c- Dermatophyte
          d- Dimorphic Fungi

          189- Plastomyces is one of
          a- Dermatophytes
          b- Dimorphic Fungi
          c- Yeast
          d- Moulds

          190- Color of gram negative bacteria is
          a- Violet
          b- Green
          c- Redd- Black


          BACTERIOLOGY
          118- All are Prokaryotic cells except:
          a- Fungib- Bacteria
          c - Chlamydia
          d- Mycoplasma

          119- Viruses:
          a- Contain only DNA or RNA
          b - They Contain ribosome
          c- Did not affected by antibiotics
          d- a+c
          120- All of these are essential structure except:
          a- Nuclear body
          b- Sporesc- Cell wall
          d- Plasma Membrane

          121- ________ is giving the shape to the bacteria
          a.- Cytoplasmic Membrane
          b- Capsule
          c- Cell Walld- All of the above

          122- One of its functions is selective permeability
          a- Cell wall
          b- Plasma membrane
          c- Capsule
          d- Spores

          123- They are responsible for Haemagglutination Phenomenon
          a- Flagella
          b- Fimbria
          c- Capsule
          d- Cell wall





          124- Clostridium Tetani is:
          a- Atrichous bacteria
          b- Mono-trichous bacteria
          c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
          d- Peri-trichous bacteria

          125- Short curved or straight rods, motile by single polar flagellum
          a- spirochaeta
          b- Vibrioc- Escherichia
          d- Lactobacillus

          126- Small gram negative cocci, occur in pairs
          a- staphylococcus
          b- streptococcus
          c- neisseriad- non of the above

          127- Transfer of genetic information from one bacterium to another by
          bacteriophages is:
          a. Transformation
          b. Tansduction
          c. Conjugation
          d. Mutation

          128- Salmonella are:
          a- Obligatory Aerobic bacteria
          b.- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
          c- Facultative Anaerobic bacteriad- Micro-aerophilic bacteria

          129- According to pH, vibrio cholera is
          a- Osmophilic bacteria
          b- Basophilic bacteriac- Acidophilic bacteria
          d- Neutrophilic bacteria




          130- Staphylococci are:
          a- Atrichous bacteria
          b- Mono-trichous bacteria
          c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
          d- Peri-trichous bacteria
          الاجابة بالون الاحمر ان شاء الله صح
          الاسئلة اللي ما عرفتها تركتها
          ملاحظين يا جماعة ان الاخت اللي جاوبت ( اللي هي انا :sm170: ) كسلانة في الفيرولوجي والمايكولوجي والباراسيتولوجي
          يعني بالعربي فالحة في البكتيرولوجي بس
          والله اكتشفت اني نسيت اشياء كثيرة وعملنا رفريش بس عيوني المسكينة ما اقدر على اللاب توب لوقت طويل
          ان شاء الله تستفيدون منها
          موفقين ادعوا ليي بالصحة والعافية

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