انا نازلة امتحان يمكن الاسبوع الجاي او اللي بعده ان شاء الله ومحتاجة لنماذج جديدة اذا ما عليكي أمر

والله تسوين فينا خير ..
انا اختباري في كم اسبوع ..
لو تقدري ترسليها ليا على البريد : dj.don@hotmail.com

1. اسئلة اخصائي يوم 10 -7-2012
1__which the following with acetyl COA give acetic acid
A_glucose
B_lactate
C_fatty acid
D_oxalate
2__Trichomonas vaginal صورة ل
3__العضو الذي يعتبر استخدامه لfatty acid كطاقه يشكل خطوره هل
A_ brain
B_heart muscle
C_Skeletal muscle
D_liver
انا اخترت الbrain
4_organ use the glucose as flue
A_brain
b_pencrease
c_kidney
d_liver
5__not ferment glucose
A_salmonella
B_shigella
C_E.coli
وفي اختيار رابع انا اخترت الرابع
6__gram +ve in cluster
s. aerous
7__antibiotic against mRNA
8__MCV 104 fl , vitaminB12 and folate abnormal
A_Iron deficiency anemia
b_liver cirrhosis
c_auto haemolytic anemia
d_vitamin E deficiency
e_sideroblastic anemia
9_Heinz bodies see in
A_Reticulocyte smear
وفي خيارات تانيه
10_جدول في CBC and chemistry مطلوب AlG ratio
11_sodium folurade for
A_increase glycolysis
b_decrease glycolysis
c-inhabit glycolysis
12_cryptopreciptate use for
deficiency factor
13_سؤال في بنك الدم قال مريض معاه lung injury ايش راح نستخدم معاه ...كل الخيارات خطأ ماعدا وحده صح
A_unite contamination with bacteria
b_irradiation of blood unite
c_anti leukocyte for antibodies donor and antibodies pt
وفي خيار رابع انا اخترت الثالث وطلع صح
14_fresh frozen plasma all true except
storage at 22 _26 C
15_blood o group can donor to
1_A
2_b
3_O positive
4_AB
الخيار الثالث
16_female 65 years came to lab ANA positive ايش عندها
1_rehamatic fever
2_SLE
وخيارات ثانيه
17_platelate storage for
5 days
بكمل باقي الاسئله بعدين وبالتوفيق للجميع

1. 18_term use when larva infiltration of tissue
19_صوره لplate of macconkey ,وقال انو indol +ve and fermentation of lactose
E.coli
20_non motile for diagnosis we use stool
1_enteric fever
2_cholera
3_shiglloesis
انا اخترت الثالث
21_principle of flamfotometer
22_خلال كم ساعه malaria falciprum invasion of RBC
1_12 hours
2_24 hours
3_48 hours
4_72 hours
23_virus ........principle of diagnosis
24_lgA stimulate by
25_وظيفه الADH .......water regulation
26_neonatal meningitis from E.coli the best sample take from
1_csf from Mather
2_ csf from neonatal
3_vaginal swap from mather
4_nose swap from neonatal
27_ adult tuberculosis of mycobacterium diagnosis by
1_acid fast bacilli
2_sputum culture in j m
28_the cell of tuberculosis is
1_fast acid bacilli
29_water use in lab
1_tap 1
2_tap 2
3_tap 3
4_tap water هذا الخيار الصح
30_high PCO2 cause
1_respiratory acidosis
2_respiratory alklosis
3_metabolic acidosis
4_metabolic alkalosis
31_اللي يسبب الmetabolic alkalosis
1_diarrhea
2_sever vomiting
3_strong exerciser
4_hyper vent ration
32_salmonilla in macconkey agar
1_color less
2_color less with black center
3_red
4_yellow _orange

1. شكرا و هذا امتحاني في يوم الأربعاء 16/5/2012
1. شكرا إليكم امتحاني:
السلام عليكم و رحمة الله و بركاته هذا امتحاني في يوم الأربعاء 16/5/2012 و سامحوني على التأخير :
بسم الله الرحمن الرحيم و سبحان الله و بحمده سبحان الله العظيم :
الحمد لله نجحت ب 73% صحيح قليل بس الحمد لله
*ملحوظة الإجابات قد تكون خطأ و التي أشك فيها أو التي يراد التأكد منها سأضع أمامها ? و لكن أرجو التأكد من الباقي. طبعا الأسئلة غير مرتبة هكذا لكني رتبتها ليتضح تكرار الأسئلة بصيغ أخرى و شكرا .
1) The unit of measuring PO2 in blood is :

a) mg/dl

b) gm/dl

c) ml/min

d) mmHg

e) mmol/l ?



2)Blood gp. O contain Ab :

a) Anti-A,B

b) Anti-A only

c) Anti-B only

d) All of the above

e) None of the above


3)ABO antigens are :

a) A,B,H

b) A,B,O

c) A,B,C

d) A,B

e) B,H

4)Universal donor whose thus agglutinate all other except of its own due to it contain IgM is :
a) O+?
b) O-
c) AB
d) A+

5) Ig consists of four polypeptide chain :
a) IgM (pentamerخماسية الجزيئات و ليس سلاسل الببتيد )?
b) IgG (monomer contain 4 polypeptide chainأظن هذه الإجابة الصحيحة لأنه: )
c) IgA
d) IgE

6) Which is/are DAT :
a) In vivo Ab in red cells surface
b) In vitro Ab in red cells surface
c) Incomplete Ab on red cells surface of donor
d) All of the above

7) Which is/are from agglutination reactions:
a) DAT
b) Detect Ab in red cell surface
c) Latex
d) Rf
e) All of the above

8) D r that permanently deferred if gives a positive history ofno
a) HCV Ag
b) HB core
c) HIV
d) All of the above

9) To test Ab on red cell surface use :
a) DAT
b) IDAT
c) …

10) Pre-transfusion test for Ab is :
a) IDAT
b) DAT
c) …

11) Which of the following is/are from innate immunity :
a) Salivary secretions
b) GI normal flora
c) Breast milk
d) All of the above

12) Humoral adaptive immunity component is :
a) T-lymphocyte
b) B-lymphocyte
c) Ab ?

13) Ab normally presented on red cell membrane is :
a) Memory cell
b) …

14) Immunoglobin (Ig) produced by :
a) Plasma cell
b) Mast cell
c) Fat cell

15) B-lymphocyte produce :
a) Ab
b) Cytokines
c) Sugar

16) Macrophage is :
a) Contain large dark blue granules
b) Make phagocytosis to Ag
c) Produce Ab
d) …

17) Largest WBC's in blood is :
a) Lymphocyte
b) Neutrophil
c) Monocyte
d) Basophil
e) Eosinophil

18) Neutropenia disease is :
a) CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)
b) …

19) Thrombocytopenia disease is :
a) Cytotoxic drugs
b) Aplastic anemia
c) Radiation
d) Hemorrhage

20) Philadelphia chromosome is diagnostic for :
a) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b) Acute myeloid leukemia
c) Chronic myeloid leukemia
d) …

21) Monospot test used for :
a) Infectious Mononucleosis
b) Infectious lymphocytosis
c) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
d) Acute myeloid leukemia

22) When analysis anemia of normocytic normochromic to exclude hemolytic we do :
a) CBC
b) Ferritin
c) Transferrin
d) Soluble transferrin … sT..لا أذكر باقي اسم التحليل و اختصاره ?

23) Decrease neutrophil , lymphocyte , … :
a) Pure red cell aplasia
(notes : pure red cell aplasia : RBC's and PCV only are low but WBC's normal)
b) Aplastic anemia
c) …
d) All of the above

24) Decrease neutrophil , lymphocyte , platelets , … :
a) Pancytopenia
b) …

25) Bence-Jones protein presented in :
a) Multiple myeloma
b) Sideroblastic anemia
c) …

26) Retics normal range in adult is :
a) 1-5
b) 0.1-0.2
c) 0.2-5
d) 0.2-2 ?

27) ESR anticoagulant is :
a) EDTA
b) Sod-citrate
c) Sod-citrate + heparin
d) Li-heparin

28) Plain tube should be :
a) Clotted
b) Gently mixed
c) Hemolysis

29) Westergen technique is used for :
a) ESR
b) …
30) Gout disease caused by increase of :
a) Uric acid
b) Glucose
c) …

31) Glycosylated Hb used to test glucose in last :
a) 1-2 weeks
b) 6-12 weeks
c) 12-16 weeks ? (notes : 3months=90days=12.9weeks)
d) 16-18 weeks

32) Flame photometer to measure :
a) Na
b) Urea
c) …

33) Atomic absorption photometer lamp is :
a) Hollow cathode …
b) Halogen
c) Tungsten
d) …

34) Fluorophotometer lamp is :
a) Halogen ?
b) Hollow cathode
c) Tungsten
d) Laser
e) …

35) Nephlometer and turbidometer to detect light :
a) Emitted by small granules
b) Absorbed by large granules
c) Reflected by small granules ?
d) Reflected by large molecules
e) …

36) To measure turbidity detect light:
a) Emitted by small granules
b) Absorbed by large granules
c) Reflected by small granules ?
d) …

37) Electrophoresis depends on :
a) Charge
b) Size
c) …

38) For best analysis to Na , K :
a) Chromatography
b) Iron selective electrode (ISE)
c) Protein chromatography

39) Normal range for glucose after taking carbohydrate meal is :
a) 70-110
b) 100-120
c) 120-150 ?
d) …

40) In 2 fold serial dilution the dilute in tube number 5 is:
a) 1/24
b) 1/32
c) 1/64
d) 1/256
(ملحوظة في محاضرة أبو راشد رقم 2 من موقع مختبرات العرب شرحه لا ينطبق على الاختيارات المتاحة فأبو راشد يقول :
(tube 1=undiluted sample , 2=1/2 , 3=1/4 , 4=1/8 , 5=1/16

41) When put 20µ serum to 480µ diluent dilution will be:
a) 1/25?
b) 1/50
c) …

42) Hormone increase normally during pregnancy and lactation:
a) Prolactin (PRL)
b) TSH
c) PTH
d) Growth hormone (GH)

43) Which is/are from steroid hormones :
a) Glucocorticoid
b) Insulin
c) Glucagon
d) All of the above

44) Which the following catheters collect urine specimen in prolonged period:
a) Foley?
b) Italian
c) Soft
d) Hard
e) …

45) G+ve bacteria cell membrane contain :
a) Lipopolysaccharide
b) Phospholipid +glucose
c) Phospholipid +cellulose
d) Toxic Peptidoglycan…?
e) …

46) General stain most used in bacteriology to differentiate microorganism :
a) Gimesa
b) Ziel-Neelsen (ZN)
c) Gram
d) Leishman

47) Which is not from ZN-stain contents :
a) Carbol fuchsin
b) Crystal violet
c) Malachite green
d) Methylene blue

48) G-ve bacteria are stained :
a) Purple
b) Pale to deep red
c) Blue
d) Orange

49) Which isn't streptococci :
a) S.pneumoniae
b) S,pyogenes
c) S.aures
d) S.agalactiae

50) G-ve rod capsulated is :
a) Proteus
b) Klebsiela
c) Salmonella
d) Yersinia
e) Shigella

51) Small G-ve bacillus anaerobic is/are :
a) Lactobacillus
(I think it's lactobacillus only because it's vaginal normal flora anaerobic but Acinetobacter is skin normal flora aerobic & Bacillus is aerobic)?
b) Acintobacter
c) Bacillus
d) a&b

52) Which is realy TB on Lowenstain-Jensen(L-J) medium :
a) Dry , yellow
b) Buff , dry
c) Yellow , moist…
d) None of the above
(notes : dry , cream)

53) Which is/are enterococcus :
a) Gp. D
b) Enterococcus faecalis
c) Faecum
d) All of the above

54) G-ve cocci cause abscess , endocarditis , … :
a) Diplococci (G-ve cocci as Neisseria الوحيدة اللي)
b) Streptococci
c) Staphylococci
d) …

55) G-ve bacilli cause wound , UTI , blood stream infections :
a) Enterobacteriacae
b) Streptococci
c) Staphylococcid
d) … (لا أذكر هذا الخيار)

56) Eye swab cultured on :
a) Blood only
b) MacConkey only
c) Blood + Chocolate
d) …

57) Chocolate agar used for :
a) Haemophilus
b) …(لا أذكر باقي الخيارات)

58) G-ve bacilli oxidase +ve non-spore :
a) Pseudomonas
b) …(لا أذكر باقي الخيارات)

59) Herpes virus type I cause :
a) Herpes?
b) …(لا أذكر باقي الخيارات)

60) Gas gangrene caused by :
a) Cl.perfringers
b) Cl.tetani
c) Cl.botilinum

61) We use in catalase :a) H2O2b) …(لا أذكر باقي الخيارات) 62) Parasite transmitted by animal :
a) Trypanosoma(by TseTse fly) ? I
(لا أدري أهذه هي الحيوان أم الخيار الذي لا أذكره)
b) Entamoeba histolytica
c) Gardia lamblia
d) …(لا أذكر باقي الخيارات)

63) Entrobius vermicularis infective stage is :
a) Larvae
b) Cercaria
c) Egg

64) S.mansoni infective stage is :
a) Larvae
b) Cercaria
c) Egg

65) Which is from tape worms :
a) Anclystoma
b) Wucherreria
c) T.saginata

66) Lymphatic filarial is :
a) Trypanosoma
b) Wucherreria bancrofti
c) …

67) Leishmania is transmitted by :
a) TseTse fly
b) Anopheles
c) Phlobotomus Sand Fly

68) Toxoplasmosis is/are :
a) Cause fetal cerebral infection
b) Detected by serology
c) Infect cats
d) All of the above
11-03-2011, 01:57 AM #91
هدى عسيري
عضو جديد
تاريخ التسجيل
Feb 2011
الدولة
المدينه المنورة
المشاركات
10
الحمدلله اختبرت يوم الاربعاء ونجحت
هادي الاسئله اللي افتكرتها وكتبتها اول ماخرجت طبعا صيغه السوال مو نفسها بس الاجابة وحده عشان كدا لازم تركزو في السوال
Fixed tissue macrophages are
دا السوال جا انو كل الخيارات التاليه خطا عن
المونو سيت ماعدا اللي هي وظيفه الابتلاع
a. Basophilesهنا جا سؤال عنها انها اقل عددا
b. Monocyts
c. Lymphocytes
d. Neutrophils
e. Eosinophils.
A guideline reference range for MCHC in health patient
a. 80-98 fl.
b. 27-32 pg
c. 31.5-36 g/dl.
d. 15.18 mg/dl.
e. 13.5-18 g/dl.
The best anticoagulant used for determination of erythrocytes sedimentation rate is:
• Na citrate
• EDTA
• Heparin
• None of the above
In DIC all the following is increased except
a. PT
b. APTT
c. TT
d. Platelets
None of the above
HAV transmission
a. Blood
b. Body fluid
c. Sexual contact
d. Fecal oral
Enterococci are typically arranged in pairs and can not be or difficult differentiated from
a. Streptococci
b. Staphylococci
c. Spirochete
d. Meningococci
Patient comes to the lab. After take meal since two hours the normal level of his glucose is
a. 100 – 150 mg/dl.
b. 70 – 110 mg/dl.
c. 50 – 90 mg/dl.
100 – 150 gm/
Which is most abundant (prevalence)?
a. Plasmodium falciparum.جا سوال عنوبلازموديوم ينتج ماء اسود انا اخترت دا
b. P.ovali.
c. P.malari.
P.vivax

Blood grouping antibodies are
a. IgG
b. IgM جا سؤالين عنو ايت واحد حق التحليل او الاصابه الحديثه برايمري اميونو
c. IgE
d. IgD
e. IgA
A good complement fixing antibodies
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgD


Antibodies associated in Rh
a. IgGجا سؤال عنو التحليل او الاصابه القديمه اللي هو السكندري اميونو
b. IgM
c. IgE
d. IgD
e. IgA
Congenital Parasites infected human
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Trypanosoma sp.
d. Plasmodium malaria
e. Toxoplasma gondii السوال جا انو هذا الكائن يشخص في السرولوجي
The first aid you do in swallowing of an acid or alkali chemical or poisons.
a. Wash immediately in running water
b. Seek medical attention
c. Trans to other place
d. Call the physician
e. Immediately rinse the mouth well with water.
A case conjunctivitis has been suspected to be trachoma . wich of the following organisms is MOST likely to be the causative agent :جا زي ماهو بالنص بالزببببط
• Ricketsia species
• Boreerlia vincenti
• Clamydia species
• Treponema pallidum
• Borrelia duttoni
The biochemical test differentiate S.pneumonia from other streptococci
a. Catalase
b. Coagulase
c. Citrate
d. Bile solubility
Bacillary dysentery caused by
a. Shigella جا لها سوالين دا السوال والتاني ان كل الخيارات صحيحه للشجيلا ماعدا انها تخمر الالكتوز(طبعا هي ماتخمر الاكتوز)
b. Cambylobacter
c. Chylamidia
d. Salmonella
A carbon dioxide enriched atmosphere is required for the culture of : جا دا السوال بالنص بس ماكان في All the bove
• Bacillus anthracisانا اخترت دي ومدري صح ولالا
• Heamophilus influnzae
• Brodetella pertussis
• Pseudomonas aeruginosa
• Yersinia pestis
• All the bove
Hormones from cortex
a. Thyroxin
b. Oxytocin
c. Prolactin
d. Cortesol
Philadelphia chromosome is a specific chromosomal abnormality that is associated with.
a. ALL
b. AML
c. CML
d. None.
Cells not contain nucleus.
a. Erythrocyte
b. Leukocyte
c. Platelets
d. blast cell
T. cell maturation in
a. Bon marrow
b. Thymus
c. Spleen
d. Liver
Which of the following organism oxidase positive
a. Psedomonas only
b. Nessieria only
c. E.coli
d. Psedomonas & nessieria
Which of the following is true?
a. RH-ve person safely donate for person RH+ve person
b. RH+ve person safely donate for person RH-ve person
c. A blood group person donate for B group person
d. All of the above
In Pregnancy test we measure
a. LDH
b. Estrogen
c. α HCG
d. βHCG
Normal range of uric acid?
a. 2-5 mg/dl.
b. 3-7
c. 5-10
d. 70 -110 mg/dl
Cause Kala- azar:
a. leishmania tropica
b. leishmania braziliense
c. leishmania donovani
d. leishmania Mexicana

All of the following test use in myocardial except
a. Creatinin
b. Creatinin clearance
c. sGPT
d. sGOT
Adrenal gland upside of?
a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. Brain
d. Heart
Eosinphil raised in the following except?
a. Allergic
b. Parasitic disease
c. Hodgkin disease
d. Bacterial disease
Test for Intrinsic pathway:
a. Bleeding time
b. Thrombin time
c. Prothrombin time
d. Partial thromboplastin time PTT
The contamination of lens of microscope which cause eye infection?
a. B. anthrax
b. S.pyogenes
c. Staph.aureus
d. Clostredium tetani
Pathogens can enter the body through?
a. Dry skin
b. Wet skin
c. Unbroken skin
d. Scratch skin
More abundant leukocyteجاس وال مرره طويل وماافتكرو بس كان دا الجواب والمهم كان من ضمن السوال انها توجد بكميه كبيره
a. Basophile
b. Monocyte
c. Lymphocyte
d. Neutrophils
e. Eosinoph
One test in the following can diagnose anemia :
a. CBC
b. PT
c. PTT
d. Platelets
e. Leukocyte
Substance can not trans and absorbed without a factor
a. Iron
b. Vitamin B12
c. Folic acid
d. Vitamin A
chronic carrier state may occur in
a. HBV
b. AIDS
c. E.coli
d. Mumps
e. Rubella
The total leukocytes count less than 4,000/cmm is found in
a. Typhoid infection
b. Leukopenia
a. S.Pyogenes
c. A and B


Lenses near the slide in light microscope:
a. Objective
b. Stage
c. Eye lenses
Storage temperature of platelets
a. 37 C
b. 35 – 40
c. 22 – 27
d. -4
Hb range in adult:-
a. 13.5 - 17.5 gm/dl.
b. 12 -16 gm/dl
c. 13.5 - 17.5 mg/dl.
d. 11 – 15 gm/dl.
The following parasite will not take the gimsa stain:
a. leishmanai.
b. Trypanosoma
c. Schistosoma
d. Malaria
e. Filaria
The antibody of blood group is AB:
a. Anti A and B
b. Anti A and C
c. Anti A and O
d. Non All of the above
All of the following bacteria cell components except
a. Cell wall
b. Cell membrane
c. Nucleus
d. Cytoplasm
e. Pili
Heprenized syringe use to collect __________ sample
a. Synovial
b. CSF
c. Venous
d. Arterial
Streptococci are
a. α-hemolytic
b. β-hemolytic
c. γ-hemolytic
d. ALL
Serum is plasma without
a. Lipid
b. Cholesterol
c. Fibrinogen
d. Fibrin
CPDA anticoagulant to store blood for :
a. 45
b. 21
c. 10
d. 35
Zile-Neelsen stain for stainingماجاني دا الكائن جا واحد تاني اسمو غريب واخترتو انتو دورو ايت كائن يصبغ بهادي الصبغه
a. Mycobacteria
b. E.coli
c. Corynebacterium diphteria
d. Salmonella
During reaction of 2 chemical substances , the color produced asses by :
a. Spectrophotometer
b. Flame photometer
c. ELISA
Flourometry use (S) _________ as source of light .
• Deuterium lamp
• Mercury-arc lamps
• Halogen lamp
• Hallow high energy cathode lamp ( HCL )
• Tungsten lamp
Thromobocytosis is a common finding in which of the following diseases :
• Von willebrand disease
• Immune thromobocytosis purpura
• Iron deficiency anemia
• Sickle cell anemia )
• Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
All of the following are classified as streptococci EXCEPT :
• S. Agalactiae
• S. pyogenes
• S. mutants
• S. Aureus
Normal value of Lymphocyte
a. 55%
b. 25%
c. 70%
Infective stage of hook worms
a. Larva
b. Egg
c. Cyst
d. Metacercaria
Coombs test used for
a. Auto antibodies on surfase RBCs
b. Antigene RBCs
c. Antibodies in serum
d. Antigene on Cells
A heamocytometer cannot be used for the counting which of the following :
• Red blood cells
• Sperm
• Total white blood cells
• Lymphocytes
• Platelets
-جا سؤال عن جهاز الكروماتوجرافي يستخدم لماذا انا جاوبت اللون
الطور المعدي للدوده الدبوسيه ال EGG
Test differentiate staphylococci from streptococci
a. Catalase
b. Coagulase
c. Citrate
d. Bile solubility

بكتريا الهليوبكترمميزاتها؟؟+ve coccobacilli
كل الخيارات تستخدم في الفرن الجاف ماعدا؟gloves
بكترياc.botulism تسبب botulism
جرام بوزتيف كابسول؟؟ كان الخيارات ستاف وستربتو و meningococci
BHS increase??sickle cell anemia
1. جديد نموذج أسأله الهيئه اخصائي مختبر بتاريخ 14/6/2012 ارجو من الله التوفيق للجميع

Harada Moro technic for one of
1- Stringloid
2- Hook worm
3- Ascaris
________________________________
Hashimoto Disease Ab سؤال عن
______________________________________
Pseudomonas Aerogenosa is
1-lophotrichus
2- monotrichus
3-Amphotrichus
4- Atrichus
__________________________________________
B-Lactmase Bacteria is resistant to
1 –penicillin
2 – tetracycline
3 – cotrimoxazol
__سؤال عن تركيب الهيموجلوبين
Hb A or HbA2 or HbF
المهم واحد مهم
يعني كم بيتا وكم الفا او جاما
__________________________________
In PCR copy of DNA
يعني كيف يحصل نسخ للدي ان اه
وجايبين اختيارات منها
Amplification of complement DNA
______________________________________
Pence Jons Protein found in
Multiple myloma

______________________________________
سؤال يقول ماهو البروتين اللذي يحمل عليه TSH
وعاطي اختيارات
1- albumin
2- thyroglobin
___________________________
RPR Test for
Syphilis
_________________________________________________
How we different between group A & Group B streptococci
1-Bactracin
2- optichin
3- neomycin
1. ______________________Eosinophilia in cases of
Parasitic And allergic
_____________________________________________

Secretary Ab
1- IgA

_______________________________________________
All are true about Salmnella Exept
1- H2S Producton
2- Non-lactose fermenter
3- Enteric fever
4- Lactose fermenter

______________________________________
سؤال عن ًWrite stain
__________________________________________________ _
Pad cholesterol & good Cholesterol
LDL (Pad) HDL (Good)
__________________________________________
Catalase to different between
1 – staph & strept
__________________________________________________ _______
Bacteria secret cAMP factor
1 – Strept Agalactica

__________________________________________________ ____________
Test specialist for enterococci
Litmus milk decolonization

__________________________________________________ ____________
Septicimia cane caused by
1 – brucella
2- shigella
3- EHEC
4- ETEC
__________________________________________________ _________
Parasite in crescent shape
Plasmodium falciparum

__________________________________________________ __________

صوره طبق مزروع عليه بكتيريا نوع الطبق نيترنت اجار والسؤال
This bacteria isolated from patient with UTI this bacteria make swarming
Proteus
رد مع اقتباس
1. Man 45 y with abd.pain doctor request stool c/s the result
Gram + rod collect in chines litters this bacteria is
Corynobacteria diphtheria

__________________________________________________ _
Man age 25y take swab from wound and inculate in blood agar
Result G + rod beta heamlytic spor forming
Clostridium perfringens

__________________________________________________ __
Infant age 6 month with differential leukocyte as following
Neutrophils 40%
Lymphocytes 50%
Monocytes 6%
Eosinophiles 4%
Basophils 0%
This is
1- bacterial infection
2- viral infecton
3- entric fever
4- normal case

__________________________________________________ _____________
رجل عمره 42 سنه يسوق سياره وعمل حادث ونقل الى الطوارئ خلال عمل الفحوصات وجد عنده التالي
1- RBS 95 mg/dl
2- AST 43 U/l
3- CK high increase 3 times increase
Your diagnosis for this case
1 –liver injury
2 – liver abscess
3 – muscle injury
4 – myocardial infraction

__________________________________________________ ________________

وكم يوم ان شاءالله وانزل الباقي

يااخ عماد انت دبلوم وهذه اسئله اخصائي

الله يجزاكي خير انا عندي امتحان يوم السبت بعد يومين اذا في مجال اي اساله او اي مساعده ياجماعه انا اخصائي مختبر الرجاء ارسال اي شيئ على aali988at hotmail.com

تسلمي اخت داليا في موازين حسناتك يارب وموفقة بالامتحان

اللهم امين ربنا يوفقنا ويوفق الجميع

1. الحمد لله رب العالمين بفضل الله عز وجل اجتزت الامتحان اليوم بمجموع 57% بمعجزه من الله عز وجل
اولا انا اسف على التأخر والله لسه راجع البيت حالا
ثانيا الاسئله اللى جت من مذكرة الاخت قطرة مطر لا تتجاوز ا 5 سؤال وفيه منهم بطريقه غير مباشره وباقى الاسئله والله ربنا لطف بيا لانى مكنتش اعرف عنها حاجه
لكن الله عز وجل لطف بيا جدا
ومن الاسئله اللى اذكرها

10. Leukocytes involved in anaphylactic hypersensitivity and inflammatory reaction
a. Basophiles
b. Monocyts
c. Lymphocytes
d. Neutrophils
e. Eosinophils
بس فيها كلام زياده
Gram positive rods give gray colony color
a. Bacillus anthraces
b. E.coli
10
c. Shigella
d. Mycobacterium
e. Non

Anticoagulant used in ESR test
a. Sodium citrate
b. Ammonium oxalate
c. SPS
d. EDITA
e. Heparin
بس طبعا ما جابها بالطريقه دى ذكر اسم اللى اس ار كلها وقال na citrate
Congenital Parasites infected human
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Trypanosoma sp.
d. Plasmodium malaria
e. Toxoplasma gondii
هتذكر باقى الاسئله ان شاء الله واكتبها
وربنا معاكو يا رب بس الاسئله محتاجه تركيز جامد وقرأه جيده

وجانى سؤال عن البلانتديوم كولاى كيفية التشخيص
A Carbon dioxide enriched atmosphere is required for the growth of
بس مانى فاكر الخيارات
وجتنى اسئله عن الجمره الخبيثه اكثر من سؤال
وجانى سؤال عن ال N.gonorrhoea كيف بتشخص عن طريق مسحه من اين
The process of pathogenic infection to human
a. Adherences – Penetration –Multiplication
b. Penetration –Adherences- Multiplication
c. Multiplication – Adherences- Penetration
وجانى سؤال عن ال double zone
The antigene in ABO system
a. A.B.C
b. A.B.O
c. A.B.H
d. A.B.D
The foundmental of erythrocyte production is:
a. Erythropiotein
b. Thyroxin
c. Growth hormones
d. ADH
وسؤال عن الهرمون اللى بينتج من الفص الامامى للغده النخاميه
وسؤال عن الفرست ايد
وعن معادلة الحمض
والتركيز على الانيميا
واكرر ياريت نقرأ الاسئله كويس بتمعن
واسف على باقى الاسئله لانى اساسا مش فاكرها اصلا واسف على طريقة العرض
التعديل الأخير تم بواسطة ابو يزيد3212 ; 11-07-2012 الساعة 02:13 AM

نموذج (1



1- Vitamin K antagonist :
a- warfarin
b- Heparin
c- Protein C
d- Antithrombin III
2- One of the intrinsic pathway
a- factor XI
b- factor XIII
c- factor I
d- factor VII
3- Para hemophilia is the deficiency of
a- factor VIII
b- factor IX
c- factor V
d- factor VII
4- Eosinophilia is seen in :
a- food sensitivity
b- Drug sensitivity
c- Atopic dermatitis
d- all of the above
5-Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic proliferation of:
a- lymphocytes
b- Granulocytes
c- Plasma cells
d-Monocytes
6- Test for intrinsic pathway:
a- bleeding time
b- Thrombin time
c- Prothrombin time
d- Partial thromboplastin time
7- Paul-Bunnel test is done to diagnose:
a- multiple myeloma
b- Hodgkin’s disease
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- all of the above
8- increased platelet count is :
a- thrombocytopenia
b- thrombopoietin
c- thrombocytosis
d- all of the above
9- Decreased platelet count is:
a- thrombocytopenia
b- Thrombopoietin
c- Thrombocytosis
d- all of the above
10- All these are causes of thrombocytopenia except:
a- cytotoxic drugs
b- Aplastic anemia
c- Hemorrhage
d- Radiotherapy
11- Prothrombin time is done to test:
a- Intrinsic pathway only
b- Extrinsic pathway only
c- Extrinsic and common pathways
d- Intrinsic and common pathways
12- Normal bleeding time by Duke’s method:
a- 2-7 minutes
b- 2-7 seconds
c- 2-4 minutes
d- 2-4 seconds
13- Normal partial thromboplastin time (PPT) is :
a- 3-4 minutes
b- 30-45 seconds
c- 12-15 seconds
d- 12-15 minutes
14- Hemophilia A is the deficiency of :
a- factor V
b- factor VIII
c- factor IX
d- all of the above
15-the most common form of leukemia in children is:
a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
c- Acute myeloid leukemia
d- Chronic myeloid leukemia
16- Bence-Jones protein is present in cases of:
a- chronic myeloid myeloma
b-acute myeloid myeloma
c- Hodgkin’s lymphoma
d- multiple myeloma
17- Reed-Sternberg cells are found in cases of :
a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b- Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c- Hodgkin’s lymphoma
d- Multiple myeloma
18- Normal platelet count is :
a- 150,000 to 450,000/min3
b- 400,000 to 800,000/min3
c- 4,000 to 11,000 /min3
d- 50,000 to 100,000/min3
19- Antithrombin III inhibits:
a- factor Va
b- factor VIIIa
c- factor Xa
d- all of the above
20- Heparin potentiate the action of :
a- protein C
b- protein S
c- antithrombin III
d- warfarin
21- Factor II of blood clotting is:
a- Christmas factor
b- Fibrinogen
c- Prothrombin
d- Thromboplastin
22- One of fibrinogen group is :
a- II
b-V
c- VII
d- IX
23- Fibrinogen is converted to soluble fibrin by:
a- prothrombin
b- Thromboplastin
c- Thrombin
d- all of the above
24- Thrombopoitin control the formation of:
a- red blood cells
b-White blood cells
c- platelets
d- non of the above
25- Normal prothrombin time (PT) is:
a- 30-45 seconds
b- 30-45 minutes
c- 12-15 seconds
d- 12-15 minutes
26- Parasitic disease is associated with:
a- monocytosis
b- Lymphocytosis
c- Basophilia
d- Eosinophilia
27- Philadelphia chromosome is diagnostic for:
a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b- Acute myeloid leukemia
c- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
d- chronic myeloid leukemia
28- Normal fibrinogen level:
a- 150-400 gm%
b- 150-400 mg%
c- 15-40 mg%
d- 15-40 gm%
29-infectious mononucleosis is caused by:
a- echo virus
b- coxsaki virus
c- Epstein Barr virus
d- Cytomegalo virus
30- Atypical lymphocytosis is seen in cases of:
a- Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b-Multiple myeloma
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
31-monospot test is done to diagnose:
a- Acute myeloid leukemia
b- Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- Infectious lymphocytosis
32- The test which depend on blood platelets & capillary fragility is:
a- prothrombin time
b- Thrombin time
c- Bleeding time
d- Clotting time
33- Fibrin is broken to fibrin degradation products by the action of:
a- Prothrombin
b- Thrombin
c- Plasminogen
d- Plasmin
34- Acute myeloid leukemia is characterized by:
a- low neutrophil alkaline phosphatase
b-Myeloblast with Auer rods
c- Neutrophil with Pleger-Huet anomaly
d- all of the above
35- Plasminogen is converted to plasmin by :
a- Heparin
b-Histamine
c- Urokinase
d- Serotonin
36- Increase D-dimers and fibrin degradation products are seen in cases of:
a- Hemophilia A
b- Vitamin K deficiency
c- Diffuse intravascular coagulation
d- Von Willebrand disease
37- Activated protein C degrades:
a- factor IXa
b- Factor VIIIa
c- Factor Xa
d- Factor Xia
38- Heparin is found in
a- Neutrophil
b- Basophil
c- Acidophil
d- all of the above
39- In hemophilia A the test which will be prolonged is
a- PT
b- PTT
c- Bleeding time
d- all of the above

40- Bleeding due to overdose of heparin is managed by giving:
a- Vit K
b- Vit C
c- Vit A
d- Protamin sulphate
41- Streptokinase and staphylokinase convert:
a- Prothrombin to thrombin
b- Fibrinogen to fibrin
c- Soluble fibrin to insoluble fibrin
d- Plasminogen to plasmin
42- Test for platelet function:
a- Clot retraction
b- Platelet aggregation
c- Platelet adhesion
d- all of the above
43- Prolonged PT occurs in cases of deficiency of:
a- Factor III
b- Factor IV
c- FactorV
d- all of the above
44- normal thrombin time (TT):
a- 30-45 sec
b- 2-4 min
c- 3-9 min
d- 10-20 sec
45- cause of vitamin K deficiency:
a- Obstructive jaundice
b- Prolonged use of antibiotics
c- Inadequate intake
d- all of the above
46- Cause of Hyper- Coagulable state:
a- Aplastic anemia
b- Cytotxic drugs
c- Polcythemia

d- Radiotherapy
47-Physiological cause of neutrophilia:
a- New born
b- Radiotherapy
c- Cytotoxic drugs
d- Prolonged use of antibiotics
48- Leucocytosis characterized by the presence of immature cells and high
neutrophil alkaline phosphatase:
a- chronic myeloid leukemia
b- Acute myeloid leukemia
c- Leukaemid reaction
d- non of the above
49- Normal coagulation time (CT):
a- 3-9 min
b- 3-9 sec
c- 30-40 sec
d- 30-40 min
50- The test which measures the clotting time of citrated plasma accelerated
by the addition of a clotting factor activator (kaolin) , phospholipids and
calcium:
a- coagulation time
b- Prothrombin time
c- Partial thromboplastin time
d- Thrombin time
51- The test which measures the clotting time of citrated plasma to which
thromboplastin and calcium has been added:
a- thrombin time
b- Prothrombin time
c- Coagulation time
d- Partial thromboplastin time
52- The test which is widely used as a control and follow up test to control
anticoagulant treatment:
a- APTT
b- PTT

c- PT
d- TT
53- A disease characterized by progressive neoplastic proliferation of
immature white cell precursor:
a- acute leukemia
b- Chronic leukemia
c- Lymphoma
d-Multiple myeloma
54- The absolute lymphocyte count may be up to 300,000 or more between 70
and 90%of white cells in the blood film appear as small lymphocytes . THE
CASE IS:
a- Acute myeloid leukemia
b- Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
c- Chronic myeloid leukemia
d- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
55- Variation in red cells size:
a- Poikilcytosis
b- Anisocytosis
c- Reticulocytosis
d- Leukocytosis
56- Dark red cells with no area of central pallor:
a- Stomatocyte
b- Sherocyte
c- Acathocyte
d- Schistocyte
57-Microcytic hypochromic anemia
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- Sickle cell anemia
c- Iron deficiency anemia
d- Vit B12 deficiency anemia
58- Target cells are seen in cases of:
a- folic acid deficiency
b- Iron deficiency anemia
c- Vit B12 deficiency anemia

d- Thalassemia
59- Red cells with elongated area of central pallor:
a- spherocyte
b- Schistocyte
c- Stomatocyte
d- Elliptocutes
60- ……………….. Symmetric, short , sharp projection from the red cells and
seen in iron deficiency anemia:
a- echinocyte
b- Acanthocyte
c- Elliptocyte
d- Ovalocyte
61- ………………is a condition in which the absorption of vit B12 is greatly
impaired due to failure or marked reduction of intrinsic factor secretion:
a- fauvism
b- fanconi’s anemia
c-sickle cell anemia
d- thalassemia
62- Hyperchromic cells are seen in:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Thalassemia
c- Hereditary spherocytosis
d- Sickle cell anemia
63- A prolonged low rate of bleeding results in:
a- normochromic anemia
b- Hypochromic anemia
c- Hyperchromic anemia
d- non of the above
64- Schilling test is done in diagnosis of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Pernicious anemia
c- Aplastic anemia
d- folic acid deficiency

65- Defective synthesis of either alpha or beta chains of normal hemoglobin
cause:
a- sickle cell anemia
b- Aplastic anemia
c- Pernicious anemia
d- Thalassemia
66- Neutrophils represent……………of circulating leukocyte:
a- 2-8%
b- 0-1%
c- 50-70 %
d- 2-4%
67- …………. are non nucleated, biconcave shaped cells:
a- platelet
b- Leukocyte
c- Erythrocyte
d- Macrophages
68- …………….. represent 50-70%of total leukocytes
a- lymphocytes
b- Neutrophils
c- Monocytes
d- Eosinophilis
69- ……………have a characteristic biffed nucleus and their cytoplasm is
filled with large refractile granules that stain red in blood smear
a- neutrophils
b- Eosinophilis
c- Basophiles
d- Lymphocytes
70- The cell which is responsible for antibody production is:
a- moncytes
b- T-lymphocytes
c- B-lymphocytes
d- Neutrophils

71- ……is a curved cell with sharp ends seen in haemoglobinopathies (HBS)
a- sickle cell
b- Spherocyte
c- Ovalocyte
d- Stomatocyte
72- All of the following is correct about sickle cell anemia except:
a- leg ulcers
b- Gall stones
c- Enlargement of spleen
d- Attacks of pain
73- ……….. is a single, large, rounded , dark , purple remnant of nucleus
a- Heinz body
b- Howeel-Jolly body
c- Pappenheimer body
d- Cabot ring
74- Agranulocyte:
a- neutrophil
b- Lymphocyte
c- Basophile
d- Eosinophil
75- Pica ( craving to eat unusual substance such as clay or ice) is one of the
symptoms of:
a- G6PD deficiency
b- Thalassemia
c- Megaloblastic anemia
d- Iron deficiency anemia
76- In…………….. there’s a decreased or absent hemosiderin in bone
marrow
a- sideroblastic anemia
b- Iron deficiency anemia
c- Megaloblastic anemia
d- Hemolytic anemia

77- Chloramphenicol may cause …………. anemia in long term therapy
a- iron deficiency
b- Vit B12 deficiency
c- folic acid deficiency
d- Aplastic anemia
78- ………. is the fluid (with anticoagulant) component of blood , it contains
salt & organic compounds:
a- plasma
b- Serum
c- Hemoglobin
d- Billirubin
79- Poikilocytosis is:
a- variation in red cell size
b- Variation in red cell color
c- Variation in red cell shape
d- non of the above
80- Red cell fragments:
a- echinocyte
b- Elliptocyte
c- Schistocyte
d- Stomatocyte
81- It is a defect of red cell member
a- Thalassemia
b- Sickle cell anemia
c- Hereditary spherocytosis
d- Megaloblastic anemia
82- All of the following is correct regarding spherocytosis except:
a- normocytic normochromic anemia
b- Decreased reticulocyte count
c- Raised plasma bilirubin
d- Increased osmotic fragility

83- Heinz bodies are seen in cases of
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- Hereditary elliplocytosis
c- G6PD deficiency
d- sickle cell anemia
84- ………………is caused by substitution of amino acid (valine) instead of
glutamic acid at position No.#6 in the beta chain of hemoglobin
a- Hb-A
b- Hb-A2
c- Hb –F
d- Hb –S
85- Atrophy of the spleen is seen in cases of:
a- Thalassemia
b- Sickle cell anemia
c- G6PD deficiency
d- Hereditary elliplocytosis
86- iron deficiency lead to :
a- normocytic normochromic anemia
b- microcytic hypochromic anemia
c- macrocytic anemia
d- hemolytic anemia
87- Neurological symptoms are seen in cases of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- folic acid deficiency
c- Vit B12 deficiency
d- all of the above
88-Megaloplastic hematopoiesis is seen in cases of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- folic acid deficiency
c- Vit B12 deficiency
d- Vit C deficiency

89- Fanconi’s anemia is a type of :
a - vit B12 deficiency
b- aplastic anemia
c- Thalassemia
d- folic acid deficiency anemia
90- the most abundant leukocyte in a normal blood smear of adult is :
a- lymphocyte
b-Monocyte
c- Eosinophil
d- Neutrophil
91- The first line of defense against parasites:
a- neutrophils
b- Basophile
c- Eosinophil
d- Lymphocyte
92- …………….. play a role in immediate and delayed hypersensitivity:
a- monocyte
b- Lymphocyte
c- Eosinophil
d- Basophile
93- The largest leukocyte is :
a- neutrophils
b- Lymphocyte
c-Monocyte
d- Basophile
94- Cell which participate in cell mediated immunity:
a- monocyte
b- B- lymphocyte
c- T- lymphocyte
d- neutrophils

95- ………promotes blood clotting and help to prevent blood loss from
damaged blood vessels:
a- platelets
b-WBCs
c- RBCs
d- all of the above
96-antibody induced hemolytic disease in new born that is caused by blood
group incompatibility between mother and fetus:
a- hemolytic uremic syndrome
b- Erythroblastosis fetalis
c- Hereditary spherocytosis
d- Thromboloc thrombocytopenic purpurea
97- Young red blood cell with cytoplasmic RNA:
a- spherocyte
b- Reticulocyte
c- Stomatocyte
d- elliptocyte
98- Normal adult hemoglobin tetramer is:
a- 2 alpha : 2 gama
b- 2 alpha : 2 beta
c- 2 alpha : 2 delta
d- 2 beta : 2 gama
99- ……………represent 2-4 %of total leukocyte:
a- neutrophils
b- Basophile
c- Eosinophil
d-Monocyte
100- …………are small cytoplasmic fragment derived from megakaryocytic:
a- RBCs
b-WBCs
c- Platelet
d- non of the above

101 -………….. is the reduction in the amount of circulating hemoglobin ,
red blood cells or both:
a- polycythemia
b- Anemia
c- Hemophilia
d- Leucopenia
102- Thalassemia is :
a- microcytic anemia
b- Macrocytic anemia
c- Normocytic anemia
d- non of the above
103- Vit B12 deficiency lead to :
a- hemolytic anemia
b- Microcytic anemia
c- Normocytic anemia
d- Megaloblastic anemia
104- Lymphocyte represent ………….. of total leukocyte:
a- 20-40%
b- 50-70%
c- 2-8%
d- 1-5 %
105- Plumer- Vinson syndrome may be seen in cases of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Vit B12 deficiency anemia
c- Aplastic anemia
d- folic acid deficiency anemia
106- peripheral, pale inclusions that push out the cell membrane and
composed of hemoglobin:
a- cabot ring
b- Pappenheimer body
c- Howell-Jolly body
d- Heinz body

107- it’s an acute hemolytic anemia occurring after the ingestion of broad
bean in individual with deficiency of G6PD :
a-thalassemia
b- Favism
c- Fanconi’s anemia
d- Cooley’s anemia
108-………………. is a multiple small , peripheral grape like purple clusters
of iron:
a- cabot ring
b- Heinz body
c- Howell-Jolly body
d- Pappenheimer body
109- the blood smear gives the physician information concerning:
a- morphology of RBCs and platelet
b- Presence of abnormal inclusion
c- Presence of immature cells
d- all of the above
110- hypersplenism is one of the causes of :
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Hemolytic anemia
c- Aplastic anemia
d- Megaloblastic anemia
111- Increased reticulocytes count is seen in cases of:
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- G6PD deficiency
c- Sickle cell anemia
d- all of the above
112- The antibody which can pass the placenta:
a- IgM
b- Ig G
c- IgD
d- Ig E

113- ………is an autoimmune disease in which there is an immune
destruction of the acid and pepsin secreating cells of the stomach:
a- fanconi’s anemia
b- cooley’s anemia
c-pernicious anemia
d- non of the above
114- All of these are laboratory features of aplastic anemia except:
a- pancytopenia
b-markedly hypocellular marrow
c- Increased reticulocyte count
d-Markedly increase in serum erythropoietin
115- Secondary granules of neutrophils contain:
a- elastase
b- Myeloperoxidase
c- Lysozyme
d- Histamine
116- Monocytes represent ………………. of total leukocyte:
a- 0-1%
b- 2-4%
c- 2-8%
d- 20-4 %
117- the reagent used for leukocyte count is :
a- citric acid
b- Acetic acid
c- Hydrochloric acid
d- Sulphoric acid
118- All are Prokaryotic cells except:
a- Fungi
b- Bacteria
c - Chlamydia
d- Mycoplasma

119- Viruses:
a- Contain only DNA or RNA
b - They Contain ribosome
c- Did not affected by antibiotics
d- a+c
120- All of these are essential structure except:
a- Nuclear body
b- Spores
c- Cell wall
d- Plasma Membrane
121- ______________ is giving the shape to the bacteria
a.- Cytoplasmic Membrane
b- Capsule
c- CellWall
d- All of the above
122- One of its functions is selective permeability
a- Cell wall
b- Plasma membrane
c- Capsule
d- Spores
123- They are responsible for Haemagglutination Phenomenon
a- Flagella
b- Fimbria
c- Capsule
d- Cell wall
124- Clostridium Tetani is:
a- Atrichous bacteria
b-Mono-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria

125- Short curved or straight rods, motile by single polar flagellum
a- spirochaeta
b- Vibrio
c- Escherichia
d- Lactobacillus
126- Small gram negative cocci, occur in pairs
a- staphylococcus
b- streptococcus
c- neisseria
d- non of the above
127- Transfer of genetic information from one bacterium to another by
bacteriophages is:
a. Transformation
b. Tansduction
c. Conjugation
d. Mutation
128- Salmonella are:
a- Obligatory Aerobic bacteria
b.- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
c- Facultative Anaerobic bacteria
d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria
129- According to pH, vibrio cholera is
a- Osmophilic bacteria
b- Basophilic bacteria
c- Acidophilic bacteria
d- Neutrophilic bacteria
130- Staphylococci are:
a- Atrichous bacteria
b- Mono-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria

131- During replication of DNA, copying errors may occur and this is called
a- Conjugation
b- Transduction
c- Transformation
d- Mutation
132- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
a- grow only in presence of oxygen
b- grow only in absence of oxygen
c- grow either in presence or absence of oxygen
d- grow in presence of oxygen traces and 5 – 10% CO2
133- Neutrophilic bacteria grow well at
a- pH 8.5 – 9.0
b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
c- pH 5.0 – 5.5
d- pH 2.5 – 3.0
134- The rate of cell death increase and bacterial growth stopped, this is
a- Adaptation phase
b- Exponential phase .
c- Stationary phase.
d- Decline Phase
135- Beta-hemolytic
a- Cause complete hemolysis of RBC’s
b- Cause chemical change of Hemoglobin in RBC’s
c- Do not cause hemolysis
d- None of them
146- Mesophilic bacteria grow at:
a- 37°C
b- 14°C
c- 60°C
d- 120°C

137- Circulation of Bacteria and its toxins in blood
a- Pyaemia
b- Toxemia
c.- Bacteremia
d- Septicemia
138- Disinfections that applied on living or injured tissues:
a- Sterilization
b- Antiseptic
c- Sanitation
d- Decontamination
139- Hot air oven is used for sterilization of
a- Glass
b- Rubber Gloves
c.- Plastic Syringes
d- Catheters
140- Disinfectant for superficial fungal infection
a- Phenol
b- Potassium permanganate
c- Chlorine
d- Hypochlorite compounds
141- Rifampin
a- inhibit cell wall synthesis
b- inhibit protein synthesis
c- inhibit folic acid pathway
d- inhibit mRNA synthesis
142- Transacetylase inactivate
a- aminoglycosides
b- chloramphenicol
c- penicillin
d- cephalosporins

143- The color of gram positive bacteria is
a- Yellow
b- Black.
c- Pink
d- Violet
144- Selective media for fungi
a- blood agar
b- Mac Conkey agar
c- Nutrient agar
d- Sabourand’s dextrose agar
145- Histoplasma is a :
a- Systemic mycosis
b- Sub – Cutaneous mycosis
c- Cutaneous mycosis
d- Superficial mycosis
146- All are asexual spores produced by mould except
a- Conidio – spores
b- Sporangio – spores
c- Endospores
d- Arthro – spores
147- They reproduce only by Asexual reproduction
a- Blastomycosis
b- Deutromycosis
c- Ascomycetes
d- Zygomycetes
148- The functions of cell wall is all of the following except:
a- Giving the shape to the bacteria
b- Carrying somatic antigen
c- Selective permeability and transport of solutes
d- Protect the bacteria from plasmolysis

149- Atrichous Bacteria are:
a- Bacteria contain one flagellum
b- Bacteria contain 2 flagella
c- Bacteria without flagella
d- Bacteria with a tuft of flagella
150- ________________ are essential for host cell attachment:
a- Flagella
b- Fimbria
c- Spores
d- Capsules
151- Irregular clusters of spherical cells:
a- Streptococcus
b- Staphylococcus
c- Lactobacillus
d- Escherichia
152- Clostridium Botulinum is:
a- Obligatory Aerobic Bacteria
b- Facultative Anaerobic Bacteria
c- Obligatory Anaerobic Bacteria
d- Micro- aerophilic Bacteria
153- Basophilic Bacteria grow well at:
a- pH 8.5 – 9.0
b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
c- pH 5.0 – 5.5
d- None of the above
154- Cells are divided at high & constant rate:
a- Decline Phase
b- Stationary Phase
c- Log Exponential Phase
d- Adaptation Phase
155- The dominant bacterial species in dental plaque are:
a- Coagulase Negative Staphylococci
b- Lactobacillus
c- Bacteroides
d- Streptococcus Sanguis

156- The spread of Pyogenic Bacteria in blood stream to different organs &
produce multiple abscess is:
a- Septicemia
b- Bacteremia
c-Toxemia
d- Pyaemia
157- Inhibit the growth of micro organisms
a- Bacteriostatic
b- Bactericidal
c- Fungicidal
d- Germicidal
158- To sterilize fluid damaged by heat:
a- Gaseous Sterilization
b- Heat Sterilization
c- Filtration
d- Ionizing Radiation
159- For water disinfection we use:
a- Hydrogen peroxide
b- Formaldehyde
c- Chlorine
d- Hypochlorite compounds
160- Mechanism of action of penicillin:
a- Block peptidoglycan synthesis
b- Inhibit peptidyglycan cross – linking
c- inhibit folic acid pathway
d- inhibit protein synthesis
161- Sulfonamides:
a- inhibit cell wall synthesis
b- inhibit protein synthesis
c- inhibit DNA synthesis
d- inhibit folic acid pathway

162- Acetylase inactivates:
a- B – Lactam antibiotics
b- Aminoglycosides
c- Cloramphenicol
d- All of the above
163- Ringworm disease is caused by
a- Zygomycetes
b- Ascomycetes
c- Blastomycosis
d- None of the above
164- For wet – mount technique we add:
a- NaoH
b- K oH
c- H2 O2
d- All of the above
165- They are transmitted by arthropods
a- Chlamydia
b- Spirochetes
c- Mycoplasma
d- All of the above
166- In the past they were listed as large viruses
a- Richettsia
b- Mycoplasma
c- Chlamydia
d- None of the above
167- Bacteria multiply by:
a- Replication cycle
b- Simple binary fission
c- Sexual reproduction
d- All of the above
168- It protects bacteria from antibiotics
a- Capsule
b- Cell membrane
c- Flagella
d- Fimbria

169- Vibro cholera is:
a-Mono –trichous bacteria
b- Atrichous bacteria
c- Lopho-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria
170- Short rods, motile by peritrichous flagella
a- Spirochaeta
b- Lactobacillus
c- Escherichia coli
d- Vibrio
171- To take up soluble DNA fragments derived from other, closely related
species is:
a. Mutation
b. Transformation
c. Transduction
d. Conjugation
172- Tuberculosis are
a- micro-airophilic
b- Facultative anaerobic
c- Obligatory anaerobic
d- Obligatory aerobic
173- According to pH, Lactobacillus is
a- Neutrophlic bacteria
b- Acidophilic bacteria
c- Basophilic bacteria
d- None of the above
174- Bacteria without cellWall
a- Chlamydia
b- Rickettsia
c- Mycoplasma
d.- Spirochetes

175- Brucella Melitensis is
a- Obligatory aerobic bacteria
b- Obligatory anaerobic bacteria
c- Facultative anaerobic bacteria
d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria
176- Pseudomonas aeroginosa is
a- Peri-trichous bacteria
b- Lopho-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Monotrichous bacteria
177- Genetic information of bacteria is carried on
a- Messenger RNA
b- Transfer RN|A
c- Transcript RNA
d- Double – Stranded DNA
178- Thermophilic bacteria grow at
a- 60 – 80 °C
b- 0 - 20°C
c-. 37°C
d- 100 - 120°C
179- Acidophilic bacteria grow at
a- pH 7.2 – 7.4
b- pH 5.0 – 5.5
c- pH 8.5 – 9.0
d- None of the above
180- Mycoplasma is
a- Neutrophilic bacteria
b- Acidophilic bacteria
c- Basophilic bacteria
d- All of the above

181- It is the adaptation of bacteria to the fresh medium
a- Lag phase
b- Decline phase
c- Logarithmic Phase
d- Stationary phase
182- Bacteria which do not cause hemolysis is
a- Beta-Hemolytic
b- Alpha-Hemolytic
c- Gama Hemolytic
d- None of the above
183- Normal flora of Lower intestine are all of the following except:
a- Staphylococci
b- Diphtheroids
c- Shigella
d- Lactobacillus
184- Opportunistic pathogens are all of the following except:
a- Cause a disease when the host defense are suppressed.
b- Are normal flora of healthy body
c- Are greatly harmful
d- Do not invade the body or tissue.
185- For disinfection of mattresses :
a- Hot air oven
b- Autoclave
c- Ethylene Oxide
d- Hydrogen Peroxide
186- Pyschrophilic bacteria grow at:
a- 10٠°C
b- 6٠°C
c- 14°C
d- 37°C

187- Bacteria which contain chlorophyll
a- Heterotrophic bacteria
b- Autotrophic bacteria
c- Photosynthetic bacteria
d- All of the above
188- Tricophyton is one of
a- Yeast
b- Moulds
c- Dermatophyte
d- Dimorphic Fungi
189- Plastomyces is one of
a- Dermatophytes
b- Dimorphic Fungi
c- Yeast
d- Moulds
190- Color of gram negative bacteria is
a- Violet
b- Green
c- Red
d- Black
191- Acid Fast Bacteria
a- Salmonella
b- Shigella
c- M. Tuberculosis
d- E – Coli
192- Spherical or avoid cells occurring in chains
a- Staphylococci
b- Streptococci
c- Lactobacillus
d- Spiro chaeta

193- ………………carries the genetic information
a- the envelope
b- the capsid
c- the nucleic acid
d- the prion
194- ……………………may be seen under light microscope
a- rota virus
b- influenza virus
c- herps virus
d- pox virus
195- viruses may be:
a- monomorphic
b- pleomorphic
c- dimorphic
d- all of the above
196- viral capside is formed of:
a- protein
b- glycogen
c- lipoprotein bilayer
d- glycoprotein
197- class III in Baltimor classification is:
a- double stranded DNA viruses
b- single stranded DNA viruses
c- double stranded RNA viruses
d- single stranded RNA viruses
198- Hierarchial virus classification system use the following characters
except:
a- nature of nucleic acid
b- capside symmetry
c- diameter of viron & capside
d- virus molecular weight

199- in viral replication which is true:
a- penetration is the 1st step
b- assembly is the last step
c- relaease is the last step
d- all of the above
200- viron:
a- may be extracellular phase of virus
b- may be intracellular phase of virus
c- can grow and replicate
d- means “ virus – like “
201- pleomorphic viruses means :
a- virus which have constant shape
b- virus that may appear in 2 forms
c- virus that have not a constant morphology
d- virus that have spherical shape
202- vapor of gold is used in :
a- shadow casting technique
b- negative staining technique
c- positive staining technique
d- non of the above
203- direct diagnosis of virus :
a- ELISA
b- CFT
c- IFT
d- PCR
204- all of the following are required in cell culture except:
a- neutral PH
b- presence of buffer salts
c- presence of antibiotics
d- incubation at 20 C

205- all of the following are diagnostic molecular biological technique
except:
a- PCR
b- ELISA
c- nucleic acid hyperdization
d- DNA finger printing
206- PCR require all of the following except:
a- extracted DNA template
b- 2 specific primers
c- reation buffer
d- RNA polymerase
207- bacteriophage is :
a- virus that can be killed by antibiotic
b- virus that act like a bacteria
c- bacteria that act like a virus
d- virus that infect bacteria
208- all of the following viruses are transmitted by blood except:
a- HIV
b- HBV
c- HCV
d- herps virus
209-all of the following are RNA viruses except:
a- corona viridase
b- reoviridase
c- picorona viridase
d- pox viridase
210- penetration of naked virus is by :
a- fusion
b- endocytosis
c- translocation
d- all of the above

211- amniotic cavity inoculation is one type of virus culture in:
a- tissue wall
b- lab animals
c- embryonated egg
d- non of the above
212- …………….. is an invitro method amplification of a short sequence of
target DNA
a- PCR
b- hyberdization
c- finger printing
d- all of the above
213- nucleic acid hyberdization means:
a- probe anneling or binding with it’s complementary
segment of NA
b- fragmentation of nucleic acid
c- amplification of nucleic acid
d- non of the above
214- DNA hyberdization is performed by:
a- primers
b- DNA labeled probe
c- restriction endonuclease
d- non of the above
215-PCR starts with :
a- annealing
b- denaturation of DNA
c-extension of primers
d- non of the above
216- ……………….. is a piece of DNA fragment of a particular gene that can
bind specially with it’s complementary piece of DNA:
a- codon
b- probe
c- LCR
d- code

217- how many primers are used in PCR :
a- non
b- one
c- two
d- three
218- secreted from virus infected cell:
a- C-reactive protein
b- complement
c- interferons
d- lysozyme
219- it’s a process of coating the foreign cell by antibodies :
a- chemotaxis
b- adherence
c- opsonization
d- endocytosis
220- the only Ig that can cross the placenta:
a- IgE
b- IgD
c- IgM
d- IgG
221- the predominant Ig in primary immune response:
a- IgM
b- Ig A
c- Ig G
d- Ig D
222- the predominant Ig in body secretion:
a- IgM
b- Ig A
c- Ig G
d- Ig D

223- it’s a cytophilic Ab
a- IgM
b- Ig E
c- Ig G
d- Ig D
224- it’s the main host defense against helminthes infestations:
a- Ig E
b- Ig A
c- Ig G
d- Ig D
225- Antibodies are secreted from:
a- B-lymphocyte
b- T- lymphocyte
c- monocyte
d-Macrophage
226-immunity through placenta is:
a- natural active immunity
b- Artificial active immunity
c- Natural passive immunity
d- Artificial passive immunity
227- one of the primary lymphoid organs:
a - spleen
b- Tonsils
c- Thymus gland
d- Lymph nodes
228- Its a memory of T cell mediated immunity:
a-T – helper
b- T suppressor
c- T- cytotoxic
d- T effector

229- all are character of primary immune response except:
a- stimulate native B- cells
b- short duration
c- high level of Ab
d- low affinity of Abs to Ags
230- they are cytokines that regulate the interaction between lymphocyte and
other leukocyte:
a- interferon
b- Growth factor
c- Tumor necrosis factor
d- Interleukins
231- Malignant tumor in epithelial cells:
a- leukemia
b- Carcinoma
c- Sarcoma
d- non of the above
232- Kaposi’s sarcoma is caused by:
a- hepatitis B virus
b- Epstein Barr virus
c- Cytomegalo virus
d- Human papilloma virus
233- Reagenic Ab:
a- IgM
b- Ig A
c- Ig G
d- Ig E
234- Tuberculin test is :
a- type I hypersensitivity
b- type II hypersensitivity
c- type III hypersensitivity
d- type VI hypersensitivity

235- Formation of auto-Abs ( IgG) to acetylcholine receptors:
a- multiple sclerosis
b- Graves’s disease
c-Myasthenia gravis
d- Rheumatoid arthritis
236- Auto –Abs against Ags on the myelin sheath:
a- Hashimoto’s thyroditis
b- Graves’s disease
c- Myasthenia gravis
d- Multiple sclerosis
237- Anti nuclear Abs found in case of
a- SLE
b- IMN
c- CML
d- AML
238- If the rejection to kidney grafts is happened after 7 days this is:
A- Hyper acute rejection
b- Accelerated rejection
c- Acute rejection
d- Chronic rejection
239- The test which determine the presence of Ab to HIV Ags(p24,P31)is:
a- ELISA test
b- immunfluoresence test
c- western blot test
d- P24 Ag test
240- Vaccination is:
a- natural active immunity
b- Artificial active immunity
c- Natural passive immunity
d- Artificial passive immunity

241- Lysozyme found in high concentration:
a- urine
b- Sweat
c- Tears
d- CSF
242- ………….. inhibit virus replication:
a- acute phase protein
b- Lysozyme
c- Complement
d- Interferon
243- it’s a foreign substance of low molecular weight which can not induce
specific immune response unless it’s conjugated with a carrier:
a- antigen
b- Immunogene
c- Hatpin
d- Adjuvant
244-the main Ig in secondary immune response:
a- Ig A
b- Ig G
c- IgD
d- IgM
245- Wassermantest is done for the diagnosis of :
a- T.B
b- Syphilis
c- Diphtheria
d- all of the above
246- Elek test is done for the diagnosis of:
a- T.B
b- Syphilis
c- Diphtheria
d- Gonorrhea

247- thyrotoxin is secreted from:
a- pituitary gland
b- Thyroid gland
c- Suprarenal gland
d- non of the above
248-they are material that enhance the normal immune response non
specifically:
a- antigen
b- Hapten
c- Adjuvant
d- Mitogen
249- they increase the mitotic activity of lymphocyte:
a- immunogens
b- Adjuvant
c- Hapten
d- Mutagen
250- it’s the most efficient Ig in complement fixation:
a- IgM
b- Ig A
c- Ig G
d- Ig E
251- complement concentration increased in:
a- nephritis
b- Serum sickness
c- Carcinoma
d-Malaria
252- the acceptable minimum concentration of heamoglobin for the donor is:
a- 12-5 g/dl
b- 10-5 g/dl
c- 9.5 g/dl
d- 15.5 g/dl

253- all of these are adverse donor reaction except :
a- syncope
b- convulsions
c- hypertension
d- nausea and vomiting
254- the bleeding room should be equipped with the following injections
……. except:
a- adrenaline
b- atropine
c- dexamethasone
d- calcium gluconate
255- the ****f life of deglycerolized blood is:
a- 24 hours
b- 48 hours
c- 72 hours
d- 12 hours
256- the platelet are stored at :
a- 2 : 6 c ْ
b- 20 : 26 c ْ
c- 20 : 50 c ْ
d- 120 : 180 c ْ
257- major cross match:
a- donor’s cells + patient serum
b- donor’s serum + patient’s cell
c- donor’s cells + donor’s serum
d- patient’s cells + patient’s serum
258- cold agglutination syndrome is due to :
a- IgG
b- IgM
c- IgA
d- Ig D

259- the antibody usually responsible for PCH is:
a- anti A
b- anti B
c- anti Po
d- anti D
260- the worm autoimmune hemolytic anemia is due to :
a- IgM
b- IgA
c- Ig G
d- Ig D
261- HLA antigen is controlled by a region on chromosome No.:
a- 9
b- 6
c- 12
d- 3
262- the blood group individuals which are found to be resistance to a west
African malaria parasite:
a- kell
b- kidol
c- duffy
d- Lutheran
263- the color of anti-sera A:
a- yellow
b- colorless
c- blue
d- green
264- the color of anti-sera B is:
a- red
b- blue
c- yellow
d- colorless

265- detecting ABO grouping by using the cells of the patient is:
a- reverse grouping
b- forward grouping
c- backward grouping
d- non of the above
266- detecting ABO grouping using the serum of the patient is
a- reverse grouping
b- forward grouping
c- backward grouping
d- non of the above
267- patient with anti A antibodies in his serum , his blood group is :
a- group A
b- group B
c- group AB
d- groupO
268-the red cells of a patient with neither A nor B antigen on the surface , his
blood group is :
a- group A
b- group B
c- group AB
d- groupO
269- cryoprecipitated is used for the treatment of :
a- hemophilia A
b- anemia
c- leukemia
d- thrombocytopenia
270- universal donor is :
a- group A
b- group B
c- group AB
d- groupO

271-universal recipient is :
a- group A
b- group B
c- group AB
d- groupO
272- fresh frozen plasma is used for the treatment of the following…….
except:
a- DIC
b- vit K deficiency
c- clotting factor deficiency
d- protein replacement
273- the indication for exchange transfusion :
a- disseminated intravascular coagulation
b- immune thrombocytopenic purpura
c- hemolytic disease of newborn
d- vit K deficiency
274- a case of anemia with coronary disease must be treated with:
a- whole blood
b- packed red cells
c- fresh frozen plasma
d- cryoprecipitate
275- the storage time of acid citrate dextrose (ACD) is:
a- 42 days
b- 21 days
c- 35 days
d- 15 days
276- the storage time of saline adenine glucose – mannitol (SAGM) is:
a- 42 days
b- 21 days
c- 35 days
d- 15 days

277- to collecte blood from the donor , you have to apply the blood pressure
cuff on his arm and raise the pressure to:
a- 150 – 180 mmHg
b- 15 -16 mmH
c- 50 -60 mmHg
d- non of the above
278- all of these are transfusion transmitted disease except:
a- hepatitis B
b- hepatitis C
c- hepatitis A
d- AIDS
279- the donor is permanently deferred if gives a positive history of :
a- German measles
b- antidiphtheria vaccine
c- epilepsy
d- tattooing
280- the blood donor must not be less than:
a- 30 years
b- 18 years
c- 40 years
d- 25 years
281- the clinical significance of Rh antigen :
a- blood transfusion
b- hemolytic disease of newborn
c- medico legal
d- all of the above
282- in cross matching we use:
a- albumin
b- antihuman globulin
c- papain enzyme
d- all of the above

283- the temperature of the blood refrigerator is:
a- 6 – 9C ْ
b- 2 – 6 C ْ
c- 9 – 15 C ْ
d- 20 – 25 C ْ
284- biochemical changes in the stored blood RBCs:
a- RBCs change it’s shape
b- osmotic fragility is increased
c- loss of red cell membrane lipids
d- all of the above
285- the red cells in frozen state can be stored for years by addition of:
a- oxygen
b- hydrogen
c- nitrogen
d- glycerol
286- dark red card on blood bag means:
a- group O +ve
b- group A +ve
c- group B +ve
d- group AB +ve
287- panel test is done to know:
a- viruses on the serum
b- antigen on the serum
c- antibodies on the serum
d- all of the above
288- incomplete antibody :
a- IgM
b- IgA
c- Ig G
d- Ig D

289- the anticoagulant used for blood coagulation and platelet function
studies:
a- EDTA
b- heparin
c- trisodium citrate
d-all of the above
290- the preferred anticoagulant for blood cell count :
a- EDTA
b- heparin
c- trisodium citrate
d-all of the above
291- haymen’s solution is used for:
a- RBCs counting
b-WBCs counting
c- platelet counting
d- Hb concentration
292-the most commonly used diluting fluid for RBCs count:
a- Drakin’s solution
b- Turk’s solution
c- Normal saline
d- glacial acetic acid
293- Drabkin’s solution is used for:
a- RBCs counting
b-WBCs counting
c- platelet counting
d- Hb concentration
294-in hemoglobin determination by using cyanmethemoglobin method . we
measure the absorbency in spectrophotometer at a wave length of:
a- 504 nm
b- 405 nm
c- 540 nm
d- 450 nm

295- the ratio of the volume of cellular elements to that of whole blood is:
a- MCV
b-MHC
c- MCHC
d- HCT
296- the normal value of mean corpuscular volume is:
a- 27 – 32 pg
b- 80 – 90 fl
c- 33 – 38%
d- non of the above
297- (PCV/ RBCs count ) x 10 =
a-MCH
b- MCHC
c-MCV
d- HCT
298- thoma pipette is used for :
a- RBCs counting
b-WBCs counting
c- platelet counting
d- Hb concentration
299- glacial acetic acid is used for :
a- RBCs counting
b-WBCs counting
c- platelet counting
d- reticulocyte counting
300- for counting platelet we use:
a- ammonium oxalate
b- mercury chloride
c- sodium carbonate
d- ammonium hydroxide

301- normal adult have a reticulocyte count of :
a- 2.5 % - 6.5 %
b- 0.5 % - 2%
c- 5 % - 10%
d- non of the above
302- brilliant cresyl blue is used for:
a- RBCs counting
b-WBCs counting
c- platelet counting
d- reticulocyte counting
303- Westergren’s pipette is used for :
a- HCT estimation
b- ESR estimation
c- Hb determination
d-WBCs counting
304-Lowenstein-Jensen media is used for the isolation for:
a- neisseria gonorrhea
b- mycobacterium tuberculosis
c- haemophilus influenza
d- staphylococcus aureus
305- Hekton-Enteric agar is the selective media for:
a- salmonella
b- streptococcus
c- staphylococcus
d- all of the above
306- the selective media for isolation of fungi is:
a- S-S agar
b- XLD agar
c- sabouraud glucose agar
d- Hekton-Enteric agar

307- gram positive rods with Chinese letter appearance:
a- mycobacterium tuberculosis
b- corynebacteria diphtheria
c- clostridium tetani
d- staphylococcus pneumonia
308- E lek test is done to diagnose :
a- streptococcus
b- staphylococcus aureus
c- clostridium tetani
d- corynebacteria diphtheria
309- all are lactose fermenter except:
a- E-COLI
b- proteus
c- klebsiella
d- enterobacter
310- produce pale colonies onMacConkey’s agar and have tendency to
swarm on blood agar:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus
311- lactose frementer gram negative bacilli with mucoid growth:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus
312-non lactose fermenter gram negative bacilli produce H2S :
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus

313- Widal test is done for diagnosis of :
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- E-coli
d- klebsiella
314- the causative agent of enteric fever:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus
315- the most common cause of urinary tract infection :
a- E-coli
b- salmonella
c- shigella
d- streptococcus
316- an important cause of diarrhea in infant:
a- staphylococcus
b- E-coli
c- salmonella
d- shigella
317- the most common causative agent for peptic ulcer :
a- campylobacter
b- H-pylori
c- V-cholera
d- all of the above
318- TCBS is the selective media for isolation of:
a- H-pylori
b- V-cholera
c- E-coli
d- H influenza

319- gram negative bacilli strict aerobes grows on simple media producing a
characteristic greenish pigment:
a- campylobacter
b- pseudomonas
c- pasterulla
d- bordetella
320- the bacteria which cause scarlet fever:
a- staphylococcus
b- streptococcus
c- salmonella
d- shigella
321- antistreptolysin O titer (ASO) is done for the diagnosis of:
a- group A streptococcus
b- group B streptococcus
c- staphylococcus aureus
d- staphylococcus albus
323- Loffler’s serum is used for isolation of:
a- anthrax
b- clostridium
c- diphtheria
d- T.B
324- gas gangrene is caused by:
a- clostridium tetani
b- clostridium botulinum
c- clostridium welchii
d- non of the above
325- Bacillary dysentery is caused by:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- cholera
d- all of the above

326- the cause of plague:
a- Y-enterocolitica
b- Y-pestis
c- Y pseudotuberculsois
d- non of the above
327- treponema palladium is the cause of :
a- T.B
b- gonorrhea
c- syphilis
d- AIDS
328- the venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL|) is done for
diagnosis of:
a- T.B
b- gonorrhea
c- syphilis
d- AIDS
329- Trachoma is caused by:
a- mycoplasma
b- chlamydiae
c-richettsia
d- mycobacteria
330- ………….. are substance produced by specialized cells of the body and
carried by blood stream where it affect other specialized cells:
a- vitamins
b- enzymes
c- isoenzyme
d- hormones
331- ……………is a protein which catalyse one or more specific biochemical
reaction and not consumed during the reaction:
a- enzymes
b- hormones
c- vitamins
d- proteins

332- …………is required in the hepatic synthesis of prothrombin and the
blood clotting factors and it’s deficiency is observed in newborn infants:
a- vitamin E
b- vitamin A
c- vitamin K
d- vitamin D
333- there are enzymes that catalyze the same reaction but differ in there
physical properties:
a- vitamins
b- adjuvents
c- isoenzyme
d- hormones
334- it’s functionis to maintain adequate serum level of calcium:
a- vitamin E
b- vitamin A
c- vitamin K
d- vitamin D
335-the inhibitor and substrate bind at different sites on the enzyme this type
of inhibition is called:
a- competitive inhibition
b- non competitive inhibition
c- surface recognition
d- product concentration
336- ……….. found in cartilage consist of a core protein to which the linear
carbohydrates chain are covalently attached:
a- glycoprotein
b- proteoglycan
c- link protein
d- hyaluronic acid
337- ……………is synthesized only by micro-organism , it’s not present in
plants but present in liver , it’s deficiency leads to pernicious anemia:
a- vit C
b- vit B12
c-vit B1
d- vit B2

338- the brown color of the stool is due to the presence of:
a- urobilinogen
b- urobilin
c- porphyrin
d- bilirubin
339- the degradation of heme takes place in the…………. particularly in the
liver and spleen
a- reticulocytes
b- erythrocytes
c- reticuloendothelial cells
d- non of the above
340- increased Hb destruction , the liver is unable to cup the greater load of
pigment and bilirubin level well rises this is called :
a- hepatogenous jaundice
b- hemolytic jaundice
c- obstructive jaundice
d- non of the above
341- …………plays a role in visual cycle it’s deficiency leads to night
blindness, β-carotene is the major precursor of this vitamin in human:
a- vitamin E
b- vitamin A
c- vitamin K
d- vitamin D
342- a large percentage of the……….. requirement in humans is supplied by
intestinal bacteria:
a- biotin
b- niacin
c- folic acid
d- thiamin
343- ………….. are organic compounds required by the body in trace
amount , can’t be synthesized by humans , but supplied by diet:
a- enzymes
b- vitamins
c- hormones
d- proteins

344- it facilitate the absorption of iron by reducing it to ferrus state in the
stomach and it’s deficiency result in scurvy:
a- vit C
b- vit B
c- vit D
d- vit A
345- it’s function is to transport oxygen from the lung to the tissue:
a- haptoglobin
b- hemoglobin
c- bilirubin
d- myoglobin
346- ………….. act as an antioxidant and it’s deficiency cause liver
degeneration:
a- vit E
b- vit A
c- vit K
d- vit D
347- it’s caused by liver parenchyma damage , the excretion of bile greatly
decreased and the concentration of bilirubin in the blood rise :
a- hemolytic jaundice
b- hepatogenous jaundice
c- obstructive jaundice
d- non of the above
348- ………play an essential role in body metabolism , a deficiency or excess
may lead to serious dearrangement of body function:
a- enzymes
b- hormones
c- vitamins
d- isoenzymes
349- …………. will interfere with the chemical determination of bilirubin ,
giving high variable results:
a- hemolysis
b- hemoglobin
c- vitamins
d- hormones

350- in hemolytic jaundice there will be increase……………. in serum:
a- direct bilirubin
b- indirect bilirubin
c- total bilirubin
d- all of the above
351- the inhibitor binds reversibly to the same site on the enzyme that the
substrate normally occupy , this type of inhibition is called :
a- competitive inhibition
b- non competitive inhibition
c- surface recognition
d- product concentration
352- regulation of blood glucose level can be achieved by :
a- hormonal mechanism
b- hepatic and renal mechanism
c- (a) & (b)
d- non of the above
353- insulin is a hormone secretes by :
a- α cell of islet of langerhans in pancreas
b- β cell of islet of langerhans in pancreas
c- suprarenal cortex
d- non of the above
354- cholesterol is a component of all cell membrane and it’s the precursor
of :
a- bile acid
b- steroid hormones
c- vit D
d- all of the above
355- anti diuretic hormone ( ADH) secretion is controlled by:
a- rennin angiotensin
b- plasma osmlality
c- (a) & (b)
d- non of the above

356- the electrophoresis is based on differential migration of :
a- charged particles
b- uncharged particles
c- molecular weight
d- (a) & (b)
357- acid base balance is regulated by :
a- oxygen concentration
b- hydrogen ion concentration
c- nitrogen ion concentration
d- (a) & (b)
358- it’s an increase in hydrogen ion concentration of the blood:
a- acidosis
b- alkalosis
c- acid base balance
d- (a) & (b)
359- over production of acid associated with :
a- diabetes mellitus
b- lactic acidosis
c- methanol poisoning
d- all of the above
360- serum bicarbonate is decreased in:
a- respiratory acidosis
b- metabolic acidosis
c- renal tubular acidosis
d- all of the above
361- chronic deficiency in dietry calcium can lead to :
a- anemia
b- bronchial asthma
c- osteoporosis
d- non of the above

362- …………is due to decrease blood CO2:
a- metabolic acidosis
b- respiratory acidosis
c- respiratory alkalosis
d- metabolic acidosis
363- …………. is the most important factor affecting body sodium content:
a- aldosteron secretion
b- antidiuretic hormone
c- testosterone
d- all of the above
364- haemosiderosis is :
a- increase iron store
b- decrease iron store
c- increase hemoglobin
d- decrease hemoglobin
365- if there’s a mixture of protein ( colloids) and salt( crystalloid) they can
be separated by :
a- precipitation
b- dialysis
c- chromatography
d- electrophoresis
366- the predominant cation in intracellular fluid is :
a- sodium
b- potassium
c- calcium
d- phosphorus
367- metabolic acidosis is due to :
a- failure to secret acid
b- bronchial asthma
c- loss of bicarbonate
d- (a) &(c)

368- high level of plasma ferritin may occur due to :
a- inflammatory condition
b- malignant disease
c- liver disease
d- all of the above
369- gonadal hormones estimation is important in :
a- detection of ovulation
b- assessment of amenorrhea
c- evaluation of delayed puberty
d- all of the above
370- the secretion of gonadal hormone is controlled by :
a- LH
b- FSH
c- TSH
d- (a) & (b)
371- the intensity of the color is directly proportional to the………. of the
analyte in the solution:
a- dilution
b- contamination
c- concentration
d- observation
372- the…………contain information of any health or safety rich associated
with use or exposure to hazardous chemicals:
a- MSDS
b- NFPA
c- POLT
d- OSHA
373- instraument used to measure color changes in the labs:
a- microscope
b- centrifuge
c- photometer
d- all of the above

374- the color coded signs used to identify flammable chemicals:
a- blue
b- yellow
c- white
d- red
375- quality assurance includes :
a- personal orientation
b- laboratory documentation
c- knowledge of laboratory istraumentation
d- all of the above
376- the laboratory procedure manual include:
a- patient preparation
b- specimen collection & processing
c- specimen preservation , storage & transport
d- all of the above
377- the principal of reflectance photometer
a- measure the amount of light that pass through the solution
b- measure the amount of light that the solution absorbs
c- (a) & (b)
d- non of the above
378- the blood cell counter include :
a- aperture impedence cell counter
b- Geiger counter
c- microscopes
d- all of the above
379- it is mession is to save lives , prevent injuries , and protect health of all
workers in the lab. :
a- MSDS
b- NFPA
c- POLT
d- OSHA

380-……………. requires 3 hours at 140 Cْ or 1 hour at 160 C ْ for complete
sterilization
a- hot air oven
b- autoclave
c- filteration
d- all of the above
381- arterial blood samples are essential to do :
a- CBC
b- urea
c-blood glucose
d- blood gas analysis
382- vaccum tubes with green stopper contain:
a- EDTA
b- sodium citrate
c- heparin
c- no anticoagulant
383- serum separator tube is all of the following except:
a- contain gel that separate serum from cells during centrifugation
b- contain clot activator to speed clot formation
c- has red & black mottled top stopper
d- used for coagulation tests
384- for phlepotomy we use all of the following except:
a- the hypodermic needle & syringe
b- the vaccum tube system
c- the monolet lancets
d- the winged infusion set
385- lab. equipment should be cleaned and disinfected with :
a- hypochlorite
b- formaldehyde
c- glutaraldehyde
d- (b) & (c)

386- any blood split in the lab should be immediately swabbed with :
a- hypochlorite
b- alcohol
c- soap
d- water
387- CBC is performed using:
a- serum
b- well mixed EDTA whole blood
c- plasma
d- non of the above
388- which tube should be filled first in blood collection:
a- tubes with anticoagulant
b- tube without anticoagulant
c- tubes for blood culture
d- non of the above
389- the monojector is designed to be used with :
a- the monolet lancet
b- tenderlett
c- tenderfoot
d- non of the above
390- the site of choice for capillary puncture in newborns is :
a- the earlobe
b- middle finger
c- the big toe
d- the lateral medial planter heel surface
391- M-tuberculsis bacilli stain with :
a- gram stain
b- Zheil Nelson stain
c- Gimesa stain
d- all of the above

392- AIDS is transmitted through :
a- food
b- blood
c- semen
d- (b) & (c)
393- bacteria which cause syphilis:
a- Neisseria gonorrhea
b- Viencent angina
c- Treponema palladium
d- Yersinia pestis
394- to diagnose syphilis:
a- RPR
b- VDRL
c-Wasserman
d- all of the above
395- streptococci secret:
a- streptolysinO
b- streptolysin S
c- streptokinase
d- all of the above
396- disease caused by streptococci:
a- scarlet fever
b- purperal sepsis
c- rheumatic fever
d- all of the above
397- staphylococci secrets:
a- coagulase enzyme
b- fibrinolysin
c- hyaluronidase
d- all of the above

398- gram positive bacilli:
a- Klebsilla
b- Salmonella
c- Proteus
d- C-diphtheria
399- meningeococcal meningitis is transmitted by :
a- food
b- droplet
c- touch
d- all of the above
400- dark field microscopy is used to diagnose :
a- T.B.
b- syphilis
c- gonorrhea
d- AIDS
401- it cause food poisining with flacid paralysis:
a- clostridium tetani
b- clostridium welchii
c- clostridium botulinium
d- all of the above
402- the infective stage of plasmodium vivax :
a-merozoites
b- sporozoites
c- schizont
d- trophozoite
403- Pirenella conica snail is the intermediate host of:
a- schistosoma haematobium
b- fasciola hiptica
c- heterphyes heterophyes
d- diphyllobothrium latum

404- Bulinus truncates snail is the intermediate host of :
a- fasciola hepatica
b- fasciola gigantica
c- schistosoma haematobium
d- schistosoma mansonii
405- to isolate meningiococci we have to culture the sample on:
a- Bordet Gengou
b- modified Thayer martin media
c- Lowenstein Jensen media
d- all of the above
406- to isolate fungi :
a- Brain-Heart infusion media
b- tissue culture
c- Lowenstein –Jensen media
d- chocolate agar
407- to isolate H- influenza:
a- blood agar
b- chocolate agar
c- mac Conkey media
d- all of the above
408- the bacteria which cause pseudomembrainous conjunctivitis :
a- N.gonorrhea
b- C. diphtheria
c- staphylococcus
d- Chlamydia
409- the best sample to diagnose meningitis :
a- blood
b- sputum
c- CSF
d- urine

410- used to stain Chlamydia
a- gram stain
b- giemsa stain
c- wright stain
d- all of the above
411-……….. is used as transport medium for sample in which cholera is
suspected
a- Cary-Blair media
b- Stuart media
c- Alkaline peptone water
d- glycerol
412- the color of XLD medium:
a- green
b- red
c- yellow
d- blue
413- CIN medium is used to isolate:
a- E.coli
b- Vibrio cholera
c- yersinia
d- salmonella
414- to make wet mount preparation:
a- 10 % KOH
b- 10 % Na OH
c- 10 % Na CO3
d- 10% Na Cl
415- we do wet mount preparation for vaginal smears to diagnose:
a- T.vaginalis
b- N.gonorrhea
c- streptococci
d- staphylococci

416- to isolate viruses:
a- Loeffler media
b- tissue culture
c- Bordet –Gengou media
d- Brain- Heart infusion
417- to diagnose whooping cough :
a- Bordet –Gengou media
b- Lowenstein –Jensen media
c- modified Thayer martin media
d- New York city agar
418- to diagnose systemic infection we do :
a- urine culture
b- CSF culture
c- blood culture
d- sputum culture
419- we give no growth for blood culture after:
a- 1 week
b- 8 weeks
c- 6 weeks
d- 3 weeks
420- to dissolve mucous in sputum sample :
a- 10% NaOH
b- 30 % NaOH
c- 10 % KOH
d- 10% NaCl
421- mutualism means:
a- one partener benefits , other unaffected
b- both partner benefit
c- one partner benefit , other damaged
d- living together

422- Commensalisms means:
a- living together
b- one partner benefit , other damaged
c- both partner benefit
d- one partner benefits , other unaffected
423- Balantidium coli moves by:
a- flagella
b- cilia
d- pseudopod
d- all of the above
424- Mouth inhabitant:
a- Trichomonas hominis
b- Trichomonas tenax
c- Trichomonas vaginalis
d- giardia lamblia
425- Transmitted by sexual intercourse:
a- toxoplasma
b- giardia lamblia
c- Trichomonas vaginalis
d- all of the above
426- Intermediate host of Trypansom:
a- triatoma megista
b- sand fly
c- tse tse fly
d- anopheles
427- The cause of chaga's disease:
a- trypanosoma gambiense
b- trypansoma rhodesiense
c- trypansoma cruzi
d- leishmania braziliense

428- The cause of sleeping sickness:
a- trypanosoma gambiense
b- trypanosoma cruzi
c- trypanosoma rhodesiense
d- (a) & (c)
429- Cause Kala- azar:
a- leishmania tropica
b- leishmania braziliense
c- leishmania donovani
d- leishmania mexicana
430-cause oriental sore:
a- plasmodium ovale
b- leishmania tropica
c- leishmania donovani
d- trypanosoma rhodesiense
431- Its trophozite is shaped like a pear , has the 2 nuclei that resembles eyes
and 4 pairs of flagella that look like hair:
a- Trichomonas vaginalis
b- entameoba histolytica
c- giardia lamblia
d- endolimax nana
432- Pear shaped trophozite with 4 anterior flagella and a 5th forming the
outer edge of a short undulating membrane:
a- Trichomonas hominis
b- entameoba histolytica
c- entameoba coli
d- endolimax nana
433- sometimes it cause metastatic infection which involve liver, lung, brain
or other viscera:
a- giardia lamblia
b- Trichomonas vaginalis
c- entameoba histolytica
d- balantidium coli

434- Intestinal ciliate:
a- entameoba histolytica
b- entameoba coli
c- giardia lamblia
d- balantidium coli
435- Asexual multiplication of plasmodium vivax takes place in:
a- anopheles
b- sand fly
c- human
c- tse tse fly
436- Plasmodium falciparam is transmitted by :
a- triatoma megista
b- tse tse fly
c- anopheles
d- sand fly
437- Moves by pseudopods:
a- giardia lamblia
b- balantidium coli
c- entameoba histolytica
d- Trichomonas vaginalis
438- it's one of the round worms:
a- schistosoma mansoni
b- schistosoma haematobium
c- ascaris lumbricoides
d- fasciola hepatica
439- it's one of the tape worms:
a- ascaris lumbricoides
b- ancylostoma duodenal
c- trichuris tricura
d- taenia saginata

440- barrel shapped egg, yellow brown in color with a colorless protruding
mucoid plug in each end:
a- egg of ascaris lumbricoides
b- egg of ancylostoma duodenal
c- egg of trichuris tricura
d- egg of taenia saginata
441- large oval egg , pale yellow brown in color has a characteristic side spine
and contain a fully developed miracidium , the worm is:
a- S.mansoni
b- S. hematobium
c- A. duodenal
d- T. solium
442- large oval egg , pale yellow brown in color has an indistinct operculum
and contains unsegmented ovum:
a- S. hematobium
b- fasciola hepatica
c- heterophyes heterophyes
d- taenia solium
443- round egg , embryo is surrounded by a thick brown radially striated
wall , hooklets are present in the embryo:
a- S. hematobium
b- fasciola hepatica
c- A. duodenal
d- T. solium
444- oval colorless egg , flattened on one side and contains a larvae:
a- hymenelopis diminuta
b- dipylidium caninum
c- entrobius vermicularis
d- taenia saginata
445- the cause of malignant malaria:
a- plasmodium vivax
b- plasmodium ovale
c- plasmodium malaria
d- plasmodium falciparum

446- infection occur when infective filariform larvae penetrate the skin:
a- ascaris lumbricoides
b- ancylostoma duodenal
c- fasciola hepatica
d- heterophyes heterophyes
447-……..lives in the liver and bile ducts of sheep and cattle:
a- stronyloides stercoralis
b- schistosoma mansoni
c- fasciola hepatica
d- ancylostoma duodenal
448- segment found in stool which is white and opaque and measures 20mm
long by 6mm wide with uterus that has a central stem and more than 13 side
branches on each side…the worm is :
a- fasciola hepatica
b- trichuris trichuris
c- heterophyes heterophyes
d- taenia saginata
449- infection is by eating raw or under cooked fish:
a- fasciola hepatica
b- trichuris trichuris
c- heterophyes heterophyes
d- taenia solium
450-…………is transmitted by eating raw or under cooked beef:
a- heterophyes heterophyes
b- taenia saginata
c- schistosoma mansoni
d- ancylostoma duodenal
451- urine output < 400 ml/24 hours is :
a- polyuria
b- anuria
c- oligouria
d- non of the above

452- precipitation of urates takes place in:
a- acidic urine
b- alkaline urine
c- neutral urine
d- all of the above
453- it's one of the causes of persistently acidic urine:
a- urinary tract infection
b- phenylketonurea
c- excessive bicarbonate ingestion
d- excessive ingestion of soda
454- common cause of proteinuria:
a- alcoholism
b- fasting > 18 hours
c- diabetes mellitus
d- Bence- Jones proteins
455- dipstick detect acetoacetic acid and acetone which react with:
a- peroxides
b- nitroprusside
c- diazo compounds
d- indoxyl esters
456- in dipstick bilirubin reacts with :
a- nitroprusside
b- peroxides
c- indoxyl esters
d- diazo compounds
457- among the common cause of hematouria:
a- urogenital carcinoma
b- diabetes mellitus
c- heavy exercise
d- metabolic disorder

458- large number of hyaline cast indicated:
a- acute pyelonephritis
b- proliferative glomerulonephritis
c- heart failure
d- all of the above
459- red cell casts indicates:
a- acute pyelonephritis
b- proliferative glomerulonephritis
c- heart failure
d- all of the above
460- crystals which look like envelope :
a- triple phosphate
b- cystine
c- uric acid
d- calcium oxalate
461- Biuret test is done to determine:
a- glucose
b- pentose
c- protein
d- galactose
462- the 1st tube of synovial fluid is for:
a- hematology
b- chemistry
c- microbiology
d- microscopy
463- square plate like crystals with notched corners in synovial fluid indicate:
a- uric acid
b- calcium pyrophosphate
c- cholesterol
d- monosodium urate

464- abnormal forms in semen should not exceed:
a- 10 %
b- 5 %
c- 25 %
d- 50 %
465- citrate utilization test is done to assist identification of:
a- gram +ve bacteria
b- gram –ve bacteria
c- entrobacteria
d- enterococcus
466- the Kovac's reagent used in the following biochemical tests:
a- catalase
b- coagulase
c- indole
d- methyl red
467- positive results for H2S production appear as ………. Colour:
a- black
c- yellow
c- red
d- green
468-………. Give positive coagulase test:
a- streptococci
b- staphylococcus aureus
c- staphylococcus saprophyticus
d- Escherichia coli
469- methyl red test is performed with:
a- Erlich reagent
b- Kovac's reagent
c- Voges proskaur
d- non of the above

470-…………give positive result with urease test:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- Y. enterocolitica
d- all of the above
471-……….. test is used to differentiate between bacteroides and brucella:
a- indole
b- methyl red
c- H2S production
d- nitrate reduction
472- DNAase test is positive with:
a- streptococcus pneumonia
b- E.coli
c- staphylococcus aureus
d- staphylococcus epidermis
473-………… solution used in the gram stain technique acts as a mordant:
a- crystal violet
b- safranine
c- iodine
d- alcohol
474- the counter stain in Ziehl- Neelson stain is :
a- malachite green
b- methylene blue
c- iodine
d- (a) & (b)
475- bile solubility test is positive with :
a- streptococcus viridans
b- streptococcus pneumonia
c- streptococcus agalectiae
d- streptococcus pyrogenes

476-litmus milk decolorization test assist the identification of :
a- entrobacteria
b- bacteroides
c- brucella
d- enterococci
477-The process of getting things done through and with people operating in
organized group toward a common goal is the
a- management
b- Organization
c- Planning
d- None of the above
478- Primary objectives in the planning are directed to
a- the laboratory as a whole
b- Increase the efficiency in the performance of the lab. test
c- Decrease the costs in the performance of the lab. test
d- All of the above
479- Forecasting needs for staff personnel means
a-Prediction in relation to the kind of technician and technologist who will
be working in the lab.
b- Plan for the full utilization of efficient use of instrument
c- Plan for the full use of space in the lab.
d- None of the above
480-An organization
a- Is formed when 2 or more persons are brought together to achieve a
common goal
b- Is closely related to planning
c- Involves structuring activities and functions within institutions to
achieve the goals and objects
d- all of the above
481- The real behavior and relationships of organization members usually
differ from their planned behavior and relationships. It is
a- Formal organization
b- Informal organization
c- Space utilization

d- None of the above
482- The intra lab. System includes the following except
a- Calendar format
b- Histogram format
c- out of limits report sheet
d- Proficiency testing and computer program
483- The out of limits report form provides
a- Space for recording reagents changes
b- Control lot number changes
c- Serve as a general "dairy" of the test methodology
d- All of the above
484- Patient preparation, specimen collection and technical performance of
lab. test are general categories of…………..
a- Planning
b- Utilization of space
c-Work flow
d- Quality control
485-floor book manual includes the following except
a- Test name
b- Sample fluid
c-Minimum volume
d- Proper procedures for collecting routine and special tests
486- Collection procedure manual involve
a- Blood collection from pediatric patients
b- Intensive care blood collection
c- Isolation techniques for lab. Personnel
d- All of the above
487-On the container and \or lab requisition
a- Patient's full name should be put
b- Hospital number should be put
c- Date of collection should be put
d- All of the above

488 Accuracy referred to the following except
a- Correctness and exactness of the test
b- Closeness of the test to the true value
c- True value determined by comparison to a standard
d- reproducibility
489- Regarding precision the following is true except
a- Reproducibility
b- Closeness of the test results to one another when using the same specimen
c- In the clinical lab it is expressed as (SD) and coefficient of variation
d- The capability of the method to detect a small amount of substance with
some assurance
490- Reliability is
a- The ability of a method to measure only that substance being tested
b- The ability of the test method to maintain its accuracy despite of
extraneous circumstances
c- The ability of the method to maintain accuracy, precision and ruggedness
d- None of the above
491- - …………….. This symbol in the flow chart means
a- Beginning process
b- Decision
c- Manual operation
d- Decision mod
492- This symbol in the flow chart means
a-Beginning process
b- Decision
c- Direction flow
d- Document
493- Work load on which personnel requirements are usually based is
influenced by
a- changes in volume
b- Test mix
c- Patient population

d- All of the above
494- The physical features of the lab. one of the measures of
a- forecasting of personnel needs
b- Assessment of space utilization
c- Time management
d- None of the above
495- If P (E) is the probability of E we may express this definition as
a- P (E) = m\N
b- P (E) = N\m
c- P (E) = m X N
d- None of the above
496- When a test indicates a positive status when the true status is negative it
is called
a- positive test
b- False positive test
c- Negative test
d- False negative test
497- The specificity of a test
a- The probability of a positive test results or (presence of the symptoms)
given the presence of the disease
b- The probability of a negative test results or (absence of the symptoms)
given the absence of the disease
c- a and b
d-None of the above
498- The largest collection of entities for which we have an interest at a
particular time is called
a- Population
b- Sample
c- Data
d-All of the above
499- A sample is
a- A part of a population
b- The whole population
c- Endless population

d- None of the above
500- If we have 100 students and they are ranked by age beginning with the
4th student, every tenth student is chosen (the student no. 4 then 14 and 24
and so on) this type of sample is called
a- Systemically selected sample
b- A stratified selected sample
c- Simple random sample
d- Cluster selected sample
501-A point estimate is
a- A single numerical value used to estimate the corresponding population
parameter
b- Tow numerical values defining a range of values include the parameter
being estimated
c- a and b
d- None of the above
502-A statistical inference is
a- A procedure by which we reach a conclusion about population based on the
information obtained from the sample drawn from it
b- The cause behind estimation in the health science fields
c- Calculated data from the data of the sample that are approximation of
the corresponding parameter
d- None of the above
503- Estimator is
a- the rule that tells us how to compute the single value which is called
estimate
b- Two numerical values defining the range of values
c- a, b
d- None of the above
504 The table which shows the way in which values of the variables are
distributed among the specified class interval is called
a- Relative frequency
b- Ordered array

c- Frequency table
c- None of the above
505- The following are the ages of 5 patients seen in the emergency room in
certain day 35, 30, 55, 40, 25 years the mean of their ages is
a- 37 years
b- 30 years
c- 39 years
d- 40 years
506- A mathematical tool designed to facilitate complex clinical decision in
which many variables must be considered spontaneously is called
a- Reference value
b- Decision analysis
c- Quality assurance
d- None of the above





















The answers






















١ A ٣٧ B
٢ A ٣٨ B
٣ C ٣٩ B
٤ D ٤٠ D
٥ C ٤١ D
٦ D ٤٢ D
٧ C ٤٣ C
٨ C ٤٤ D
٩ A ٤٥ D
١٠ C ٤٦ C
١١ C ٤٧ A
١٢ C ٤٨ C
١٣ B ٤٩ A
١٤ B ٥٠ C
١٥ A ٥١ B
١٦ D ٥٢ C
١٧ C ٥٣ A
١٨ A ٥٤ D
١٩ C ٥٥ B
٢٠ C ٥٦ B
٢١ C ٥٧ C
٢٢ B ٥٨ C
٢٣ C ٥٩ C
٢٤ C ٦٠ A
٢٥ C ٦١ D
٢٦ D ٦٢ C
٢٧ D ٦٣ B
٢٨ B ٦٤ B
٢٩ C ٦٥ D
٣٠ C ٦٦ C
٣١ C ٦٧ C
٣٢ C ٦٨ B
٣٣ D ٦٩ B
٣٤ D ٧٠ C
٣٥ C ٧١ A
٣٦ C ٧٢ C
٧٣ B ١٠٩ D
٧٤ B ١١٠ B
٧٥ D ١١١ D
٧٦ B ١١٢ B
٧٧ D ١١٣ C
٧٨ B ١١٤ C
٧٩ C ١١٥ A
٨٠ C ١١٦ C
٨١ C ١١٧ B
٨٢ B ١١٨ A
٨٣ C ١١٩ D
٨٤ D ١٢٠ B
٨٥ B ١٢١ C
٨٦ B ١٢٢ B
٨٧ C ١٢٣ B
٨٨ C ١٢٤ D
٨٩ B ١٢٥ B
٩٠ D ١٢٦ C
٩١ C ١٢٧ B
٩٢ B ١٢٨ C
٩٣ C ١٢٩ B
٩٤ C ١٣٠ A
٩٥ A ١٣١ D
٩٦ B ١٣٢ B
٩٧ B ١٣٣ B
٩٨ B ١٣٤ D
٩٩ C ١٣٥ A
١٠٠ C ١٣٦ A
١٠١ B ١٣٧ D
١٠٢ C ١٣٨ B
١٠٣ D ١٣٩ A
١٠٤ A ١٤٠ B
١٠٥ A ١٤١ D
١٠٦ D ١٤٢ B
١٠٧ B ١٤٣ D
١٠٨ D ١٤٤ D
١٤٥ A ١٨١ A
١٤٦ C ١٨٢ C
١٤٧ B ١٨٣ C
١٤٨ C ١٨٤ C
١٤٩ C ١٨٥ C
١٥٠ B ١٨٦ C
١٥١ B ١٨٧ C
١٥٢ C ١٨٨ C
١٥٣ A ١٨٩ B
١٥٤ C ١٩٠ C
١٥٥ D ١٩١ C
١٥٦ D ١٩٢ B
١٥٧ A ١٩٣ C
١٥٨ C ١٩٤ D
١٥٩ C ١٩٥ D
١٦٠ B ١٩٦ D
١٦١ D ١٩٧ C
١٦٢ B ١٩٨ D
١٦٣ B ١٩٩ C
١٦٤ B ٢٠٠ A
١٦٥ B ٢٠١ C
١٦٦ C ٢٠٢ A
١٦٧ B ٢٠٣ D
١٦٨ A ٢٠٤ D
١٦٩ A ٢٠٥ B
١٧٠ C ٢٠٦ D
١٧١ B ٢٠٧ D
١٧٢ D ٢٠٨ D
١٧٣ B ٢٠٩ D
١٧٤ C ٢١٠ B
١٧٥ D ٢١١ C
١٧٦ B ٢١٢ D
١٧٧ D ٢١٣ A
١٧٨ A ٢١٤ B
١٧٩ B ٢١٥ B
١٨٠ C ٢١٦ B
٢١٧ C ٢٥٣ C
٢١٨ C ٢٥٤ B
٢١٩ C ٢٥٥ A
٢٢٠ D ٢٥٦ B
٢٢١ A ٢٥٧ A
٢٢٢ B ٢٥٨ B
٢٢٣ B ٢٥٩ C
٢٢٤ A ٢٦٠ C
٢٢٥ A ٢٦١ B
٢٢٦ C ٢٦٢ C
٢٢٧ C ٢٦٣ C
٢٢٨ D ٢٦٤ C
٢٢٩ C ٢٦٥ B
٢٣٠ D ٢٦٦ A
٢٣١ B ٢٦٧ B
٢٣٢ C ٢٦٨ D
٢٣٣ D ٢٦٩ A
٢٣٤ D ٢٧٠ D
٢٣٥ C ٢٧١ C
٢٣٦ D ٢٧٢ D
٢٣٧ A ٢٧٣ C
٢٣٨ C ٢٧٤ B
٢٣٩ D ٢٧٥ B
٢٤٠ B ٢٧٦ A
٢٤١ C ٢٧٧ C
٢٤٢ D ٢٧٨ C
٢٤٣ C ٢٧٩ C
٢٤٤ B ٢٨٠ B
٢٤٥ B ٢٨١ D
٢٤٦ C ٢٨٢ D
٢٤٧ B ٢٨٣ B
٢٤٨ C ٢٨٤ D
٢٤٩ D ٢٨٥ D
٢٥٠ A ٢٨٦ A
٢٥١ C ٢٨٧ C
٢٥٢ A ٢٨٨ C
٢٨٩ A ٣٢٥ B
٢٩٠ A ٣٢٦ B
٢٩١ A ٣٢٧ C
٢٩٢ C ٣٢٨ C
٢٩٣ D ٣٢٩ B
٢٩٤ C ٣٣٠ D
٢٩٥ D ٣٣١ A
٢٩٦ B ٣٣٢ C
٢٩٧ C ٣٣٣ C
٢٩٨ B ٣٣٤ D
٢٩٩ B ٣٣٥ B
٣٠٠ A ٣٣٦ B
٣٠١ B ٣٣٧ B
٣٠٢ D ٣٣٨ B
٣٠٣ B ٣٣٩ C
٣٠٤ B ٣٤٠ B
٣٠٥ A ٣٤١ B
٣٠٦ C ٣٤٢ A
٣٠٧ B ٣٤٣ B
٣٠٨ D ٣٤٤ A
٣٠٩ B ٣٤٥ B
٣١٠ D ٣٤٦ A
٣١١ C ٣٤٧ B
٣١٢ A ٣٤٨ B
٣١٣ A ٣٤٩ A
٣١٤ A ٣٥٠ B
٣١٥ A ٣٥١ A
٣١٦ B ٣٥٢ C
٣١٧ B ٣٥٣ B
٣١٨ B ٣٥٤ D
٣١٩ B ٣٥٥ B
٣٢٠ B ٣٥٦ A
٣٢١ A ٣٥٧ B
٣٢٢ C ٣٥٨ A
٣٢٣ C ٣٥٩ D
٣٢٤ C ٣٦٠ B
٣٦١ C ٣٩٧ D
٣٦٢ C ٣٩٨ D
٣٦٣ A ٣٩٩ B
٣٦٤ A ٤٠٠ B
٣٦٥ B ٤٠١ C
٣٦٦ B ٤٠٢ B
٣٦٧ D ٤٠٣ C
٣٦٨ D ٤٠٤ C
٣٦٩ D ٤٠٥ B
٣٧٠ D ٤٠٦ A
٣٧١ C ٤٠٧ B
٣٧٢ A ٤٠٨ B
٣٧٣ C ٤٠٩ C
٣٧٤ D ٤١٠ B
٣٧٥ D ٤١١ C
٣٧٦ D ٤١٢ B
٣٧٧ B ٤١٣ C
٣٧٨ A ٤١٤ A
٣٧٩ D ٤١٥ A
٣٨٠ B ٤١٦ B
٣٨١ D ٤١٧ A
٣٨٢ C ٤١٨ C
٣٨٣ D ٤١٩ A
٣٨٤ C ٤٢٠ A
٣٨٥ D ٤٢١ B
٣٨٦ A ٤٢٢ B
٣٨٧ B ٤٢٣ A
٣٨٨ C ٤٢٤ B
٣٨٩ A ٤٢٥ C
٣٩٠ D ٤٢٦ C
٣٩١ B ٤٢٧ C
٣٩٢ D ٤٢٨ D
٣٩٣ C ٤٢٩ C
٣٩٤ D ٤٣٠ B
٣٩٥ D ٤٣١ C
٣٩٦ D ٤٣٢ A
٤٣٣ C ٤٦٩ C
٤٣٤ D ٤٧٠ C
٤٣٥ C ٤٧١ C
٤٣٦ C ٤٧٢ C
٤٣٧ C ٤٧٣ C
٤٣٨ C ٤٧٤ D
٤٣٩ D ٤٧٥ B
٤٤٠ C ٤٧٦ D
٤٤١ A ٤٧٧ A
٤٤٢ B ٤٧٨ D
٤٤٣ D ٤٧٩ A
٤٤٤ C ٤٨٠ D
٤٤٥ D ٤٨١ B
٤٤٦ B ٤٨٢ B
٤٤٧ C ٤٨٣ D
٤٤٨ D ٤٨٤ D
٤٤٩ C ٤٨٥ D
٤٥٠ B ٤٨٦ D
٤٥١ C ٤٨٧ D
٤٥٢ A ٤٨٨ D
٤٥٣ B ٤٨٩ D
٤٥٤ D ٤٩٠ A
٤٥٥ B ٤٩١ A
٤٥٦ D ٤٩٢ C
٤٥٧ A ٤٩٣ D
٤٥٨ D ٤٩٤ B
٤٥٩ B ٤٩٥ A
٤٦٠ D ٤٩٦ B
٤٦١ C ٤٩٧ B
٤٦٢ C ٤٩٨ A
٤٦٣ C ٤٩٩ A
٤٦٤ C ٥٠٠ A
٤٦٥ C ٥٠١ A
٤٦٦ C ٥٠٢ A
٤٦٧ A ٥٠٣ A
٤٦٨ B ٥٠٤ C
٥٠٥ A
٥٠٦ B

لاتنسونا من صالح الدعاء وياريت يااخ على بعد الامتحان تنزل الاسئله وتطمنا عليك ويارب ناااااااااااااااااجح بس لاتنسى بعد ماتنجح منتظرنك تطمنا

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